What would you like to do?
You finish the requirements for the specific person you want to marry and then you have to talk to her at a certain time and place for the proposal option to arrive.
Zero factorial is one because n! = n-1! X n. For example: 4! = (4-1) X 4. If zero factorial was zero, that would mean 1! =(1-1) X 1 = 0 X 1=0. Then if 1!=0, then even 999! wou…ld equal zero. Therefore, zero factorial equals 1.
Nothing. Factorials are only defined for whole numbers (non-negative integers).
1 factorial = 1
They don't! -1-1=-2
Yes, after you get married, you can get a child in Rune Factory
-1*-1 (-2+1)(-2+1) -2*-2+1*-2+1*-2+1*1 since multiplication is repeated addition then -1*-1*4+(-2)+(-2)+(1) let -1*-1=x -1*-1=-1*-1*4-2-2+1 x=x*4-4+1 x…=4x-3 3=4x-x 3=3x 3/3=x 1=x thus -1*-1=x=1
"1 equals 1" is an identity. But not sure what "1 equals 1 equals" is.
The simple answer is that it is defined to be 1. But there is reason behind the decision. As you know, the factorial of a number (n) is equal to: n! = n * …(n-1) * (n-2) ... * 1 Another way of writing this is: n! = n * (n-1)! Suppose n=1: 1! = 1 * 0! or 1 = 1 * 0! or 1 = 0! So by defining 0! as 1, formula involving factorials will work for all integers, including 0.
No. Once you get married, unless you can reset to before you proposed there is no way to get rid of your wife.
Partly convention. It helps to maintain the identity N! = N*(N-1)! for N = 1. The convention also maintains consistency with the definition of the Gamma function.
Well, 0! (the mathematical sign for "factora") is actually 0 itself. ... So that leads us to the question "Is 1 equal to 0?" Although many people have tried to make proof tha…t this is true, it's not. The only way that I can disprove this is that 0+0=0, and 1+1=2. If 0 really did equal 1, then it would also equal 2 (1+1). With that being said, all numbers would then equal 0. So this pattern would include numbers like pi, 5.7892, 0.75, and every other decimal. HOWEVER, this is NOT possible because, for example, 0.75 (which supposedly equals 0) can be converted to the fraction 3/4. Any fraction just simply means *numerator* divided by *denominator*. So, if 0=3&4, the fraction is really 0/0 (which means 0 divided by 0). It is absolutley IMPOSSIBLE to divide by zero. So, no. 0! does not equal 1.
1+1-1=1, 1x1x1=1, 1-1+1=1, 1/1/1=1, 1/1x1=1...
This is actually quite easy to prove. The Taylor series of the exponential function, e^x (using "^" for power) is 1 + x^1/1! + x^2/2! + x^3/3! + x^4/4! ..., so all you need to… do is replace the exponent "x" by 1. (To be precise, you would also have to prove that the corresponding Taylor series is correct - that means proving that the residual tends towards zero. This is the case for most commonly used functions, but it must still be proven for individual cases such as this one.)