No. Drake was English and going to Spain would have been the last place he would have been. Spain and England were at war. Columbus was FROM Spain.
he and bartholomew both pukes
Francis Drake represented England.
Queen Elizabeth I of England and Francis Drake both lived during the Elizabethan era in the 16th century. Drake was a famous English explorer and naval officer who carried out expeditions on behalf of Queen Elizabeth I to establish England's presence in the New World and challenge Spain's dominance. Queen Elizabeth I supported Drake's voyages and saw him as a key figure in expanding England's power and influence.
he married two wives but did not have kids from both
He sailed to explore North America.
In the late 1400s both Columbus sailed from Spain and the Inquisition began.
They are both explorers and they both explored the New World, and sailed for Spain.
COlumbus sailed west because he wanted to find an alternative trade route to Asia, and to get riches and treasures for both Spain and himself.
King Ferdinand V and Queen Isabella (both of Spain) funded him, because it would help Spain's economy. Christopher Columbus got his voyage from the king and queen in exchange for trading and giving the profits to them, plus claiming land and new trade routes for Spain.
Both are correct when used appropriately. For example:Jim Drake and Bob Drake are the Drakes.Jim Drake's brother is Bob Drake.
Drake and Josh are both alive.
This question makes no sense. Isabella and Ferdinand were both already King and Queen. Columbus didn't make them anything except money.