Sounds like a lawsuit. Contact an attorney.
You should able to go to Court to compel her signature via a judgment. (Motion for Specific Performance or Disposition of Property). Don't know how it works in Nevada or what the particular name is.
No, not unless you had that agreement in writing with the owner of the property who has agreed to take back a mortgage in a sale of the property to you.No, not unless you had that agreement in writing with the owner of the property who has agreed to take back a mortgage in a sale of the property to you.No, not unless you had that agreement in writing with the owner of the property who has agreed to take back a mortgage in a sale of the property to you.No, not unless you had that agreement in writing with the owner of the property who has agreed to take back a mortgage in a sale of the property to you.
No. They are legal definitions.
If there is no agreement between the landowner and the property manager that gives the property manager authority to sign in the name of the landowner, and no request for permission to do so, then the act of the property manager executing a lease agreement with a tenant might not be legal.
No. She would need her husband's written consent to make the agreement binding. All the owners of the property must sign.
AnswerPre-Nuptial agreement. Sometimes a post-nuptial agreement is done which means the agreement was signed after marriage instead of before.
A landlord can put a witness signature in a lease agreement. A property owner can also sign as a witness to a lease agreement.
An agreement form is essentially a lease agreement that you are going to pay rent installments on your commercial property. If you are opening a barber shop, this is a form you sign to indicate that you own that business property. Yes, you do need one.
You probably don't have to (landlord/tenant laws vary by state), but you would be really stupid to rent property without a written agreement.
This is a line from a purchase or lease agreement fora piece of property. It implies that whatever option is being specified will remain with the property for subsequent purchasers and cannot be stricken from the agreement.
Pushpa Mittra Bhargava has written: 'The TRIPS agreement' -- subject(s): Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights, Intellectual property
No because you own the property and you would be the that one that should be paying the property taxes.