Is seduction a venial sin?

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This question is sort of vague, but my presumption is that what you mean is in reference to the seduction of a member of the opposite sex for the purposes of sexual intercourse. If this is, indeed, the case, then the next question would be, are you married to the individual you intend to seduce. In most cases that I have seen, the answer of the latter question of being married to the object of seduction is no.

In the interest of further development of the answer, for a sin to be mortal, three conditions must exist. The sin must involve grave matter, knowledge that it is grave, and full consent of the will. If any one of these are missing, the sin is not mortal, although the gravity of it remains serious in the case of grave matter.

Sexual intercourse outside of marriage is always grave matter. People will normally give full consent of the will to such an act if they are doing it, so if the other aspect is also present, it will ordinarily always be a mortal sin. Therefore, to seduce or incite someone to such an act is also a mortal sin, not a venial sin.

In the event that the person one intends to seduce is one's own wife or husband, then a different answer entirely is called for. Seduction of one's own spouse could even be considered holy, if one is doing the seducing to help one's spouse get in the mood.
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