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Kant believed that we create the notion of objective knowledge out of a prejudgement of 'common sense'. (Critique of Judgment, Section 22) What is objective in reality is limited to our desires, "...reason can at least attain so far as to determine the will, and has always objective reality in so far as it is the volition only that is in question." (Critique of Practical Reason, Introduction) Like Aristotle, he believed in a 'common will', from which objective laws could be made, but that knowledge itself, with the exception of knowledge of 'perfection', or the will of God, was always subjective.

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Q: What did kant believe about objective knowledge?
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How was Kant different from Aristotle?

Kant and Aristotle are very similar. They both believe that the mind can know objective knowledge. For Aristotle the mind can come to know a real world existing outside of itself. For Kant the world we objectively know is made up of our sense data and therefore the knowledge is limited to our senses. We can know the world presented to us, not the world "in itself". Aristotle believes we can have knowledge of this world, Kant agrees that the mind does know this but that it does not relate to the thing in itself outside what we sense.


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