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The word "have" is modern English. The Old English equivalent is "habban," the infinitive meaning "to have." Most of its meanings are the same as its modern descendant: to possess, hold, etc. A form of the verb can be used in compound tenses, just like modern English "have seen" and so on.

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13y ago
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13y ago

Although, dear reader, you must know that Shakespeare's style is a matter of style and not his choice of words, yet here in his style will we construe the meaning and abstract of the word hath, which so commonly is heard in the writings of Shakespeare. So, when a man doth say of another that he hath something, he speaks of having, of owning, of possessing, but the thing which is had, or owned, or possessed, is in the hands, not of the person who speaks nor yet of he who is spoken to, but of another which is neither he who speaks nor he that is spoken to. And in sooth the idea of having is not confined to persons, but can be said of creatures, and things, and notions to any of which something is appertaining. So "this castle hath a pleasant seat" speaketh of a castle which is neither man nor woman, but yet useth the word hath.

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12y ago

"Hath" was an old-fashioned form of "has" in the third person singular. "He hath honoured me of late . . ." (Macbeth)

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15y ago

It means "has."

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14y ago

He "hath" is old English for he has.

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15y ago

has

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15y ago

yes

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Q: What does the word hath mean in Shakespeare's talk?
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