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What event caused the failure of appeasement policy of France and Britain at munich?
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∙ 14y ago
munich conference
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∙ 14y ago
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How did Hitler respond to French and British appeasement?
he responded by asking for more and more. he broke the agreements made as a result of Germany apparently starting WW1. He was given land such as the Sudetenland through appeasement which caused him to undermine the power of Britain and France. he became more powerful and confident with each successful demand, and this is one of the caused of WW2.
The invasion of what country caused Britain and France to declare war on Germany?
The 1939 invasion of Poland caused Britain to declare war on Germany, which started WWII.
What caused the 'encirclement' of Germany by hostile powers?
Primarily Germany's naval challenge to Britain from 1900, leading to the Triple Entente of Britain, France & Russia.
World war 2 was caused in part by which of these factors?
Answer this question… European appeasement of German aggression in an effort to avoid conflict
Why World war 1 caused World War 2?
A narrow research topic of how the First World War led to the Second World War would the be economic devastation caused by WW1, and the role it played in fascism taking hold in Europe. WW2 was fought from 1939 to 1945.
What things caused world two to occur?
Several things. The Depression, the decline of Imperialism, the rise of Fascism and Communism, the failure of the Treaty of Versailles, the failure of the League of Nations, the failure of the Weimar Republic in Germany, Isolationist policy of the US, and Appeasement policy of Great Britain and France; all combined to create the environment which led to World War 2.
What caused France and Great Britain to end their policy to appeasement and declare war on Germany?
The German invasion of Poland... complements of THE DENNIS JONESGermany invading Polandthe German invasion of Poland
What caused France and great Britain to end their policy of appeasement and deckare war on Germany?
The line had been drawn in the sand after the Sudentenland. France and the UK had said no to Germany about Poland. Germany crossed the line and WW-II was started in Europe.
How did Hitler respond to French and British appeasement?
he responded by asking for more and more. he broke the agreements made as a result of Germany apparently starting WW1. He was given land such as the Sudetenland through appeasement which caused him to undermine the power of Britain and France. he became more powerful and confident with each successful demand, and this is one of the caused of WW2.
How did democracy cause World War Two?
I don't really think that democracy caused WWII. There were many other factors which contributed much more (if democracy did indeed cause it!) these were; An aggressive Germany under Hitler appeasement (namely by France and Britain) failure to recognize a true threat bitterness of Germans at their treatment at Versailles failure of the league of nations and so on.... i think to ask how democracy caused WWII is very vague as democracy did not cause WW2 at all!
What was the war between France and great Britain about?
France and Britain fought for control of the eastern part of north America.
Why was Britain and France the cause of war in Europe?
Britain & France fought against Germany in WW1 & WW2. I think it might be difficult to find a way of establishing that Britain & France caused War in Europe.
How did Adolf Hitler start world 2?
Essentially by invading Poland. That was the last straw that stopped Britain from the policy of appeasement, and caused war to be declared.
Why was the Embargo Act placed?
The Embargo Act was placed in hopes that it would force Great Britain and France to recognize America's neutrality. It didn't happen, and caused an economical failure for a short period of time.
What are at least two specific reasons for French discontent on the eve of the Revolution?
1.France was weakened from earlier battles with Britain 2.Britain took all land that belonged to France in the Americas
If Britain and France had not adopted a policy of appeasement would Hitler have been as successful as he was in overrunning Europe?
Conventional wisdom has it that if the allies acted (militarily) against Hitler earlier they might have caught him unprepared and defeated him or at least caused him to be overthrown by German resistance groups or the army. We'll never know.
What was the effects of the German Poland in 1939?
It caused Great Britain and France to declare war on Germany.
