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Reputable historians and others argue that WWII was a continuation of WWI. I see things a little differently. WWI did not leave any 'unresolved' issues per se, it was essentially the last war between the monarchs of Europe. At the end of the war, boundaries were drawn and a peace was agreed to. HOWEVER, the Versailles Treaty did impose harsh terms on Germany. These harsh terms were at least partly to blame for the economic instability which occured in Germany during the 1920s. It was precisely this type of economic instability which led to the downfall of the Weimar Republic which led to the rise of Hitler.

Try reading "The Rise and Fall of the Third Reich" by William L. Shirer, or "The Gathering Storm" by Winston Churchill. Michael Montagne

If you mean 'Was World War 2 inevitable (given the defeat of Germany in World War 1)?' then I think the answer is 'no, it was not inevitable'.

Historians write with hindsight, which distorts. In popular history in the U.S. (and elsewhere) there is a strong tendency to write about the Weimar Republic (1919-33) as if it were one great build-up to the Nazis' rise to power. In the 1928 general election in Germany the Nazis won 12 out of about 580 seats in the Reichstag and were widely regarded as a joke, led by a funny little man with wild gestures and a ridiculous little moustache. In fact, the main build-up was in the Great Depression.

Many answers on this site assume that Germany seethed with resentment at the the Versailles Treaty and then went to war again in 1939 to 'rectify' grievances. This view is misleading, too. Most German conservatives were bitter about the treaty, but it was above all the Nazis, from about 1930 onwards who actively encouraged a sense of grievance. Peopls were constantly urged to attibute their misfortunes to events at the end of World War 1. The sense of grievance became a kind of cult.

So, the idea that the one world war simply led to the next needs treating carefully. Without the Great Depression it's very hard to see how the Nazis could have come to power.

Having said all this, there was a sense in which the underlying cause of both World Wars in Europe was very similar. Both were driven by an attempt by Germany to change its status - from that of a (regional) European great power to that of a world power. In other words, there were significant underlying continuities - however, without the one leading to the other.

I hope this helps and that it isn't too complicated.

Joncey

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8y ago
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14y ago

Let's define a "just conclusion" first. Germany's aggression started WWI and the peace settlement was pretty harsh - billions of dollars to be paid to the Allies to reimburse them for the cost of stopping that behavior. Some may think that was unjust, but most outside of Germany thought it was only fair and some that it was not enough. But, whether justified or not, it did cause severe economic depression in Germany and which made the people resent the Allied countries. Hitler and the Nazi party exploited this resentment to the fullest extent possible and convinced the German people that it was their right and destiny to retake the land they held before WWI and a few other areas that they wanted.

Further Point

German Nationalists (including the Nazis) didn't even believe that Germany had really lost World War 1 and claimed that Germany had been "stabbed in the back" by subversives on the home front and that it had been cheated of the fruits of its victory over Russia (Brest-Litovsk). Obviously, people who believed kind of conspiracy theory were not going to settle for any "conclusion" at all: instead, they wanted a re-run of World War 1. This is what they got, plus a much more devastating defeat in the second round. For the groups that actually made the running from about 1931 on, the problem wasn't the Treaty of Versailles, but the defeat.

This isn't some eccentric view of mine, but is shared by some German historians, such as Karl Ferdinand Werner.

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13y ago

in the 1930's, worldwide depression severely tested the ability of many governments. the problems that were not solved after world war 1 led to new alliances. then Germany became a Dictatorship

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13y ago

well, Germany was very poor after WWI due to the treaty of Versailles which said that Germany had to pay for all the war reparations. this is how Hitler came to power, he said that he could help Germany out of their economic situation, so all the Germans immediately voted for him to be in office.

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12y ago

the end of world war one was a disaster for Germany. because they had brought so much uneccesary death when they decided to begin world war one the allied leaders decided to make them pay. they said they they were only allowed an army of 100,00 strong. most of their income and goods had to be shared out amongst the allied nations and most of their trading rights were abolished.

then of course came Hitler and his nazi regime. he was fed up with the sanctions being made against his country and its citezens so that's how world war 2 started

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13y ago

the treaty of Versailles was singed by all the leading country's to make Germany pay up for what damage they did in WW1. they were only aloud a small army. The Nazi party promised jobs for the 2 million unemployed so Germany voted them in. Hitler began to throw his opponents in to concentration camps and formed a huge army so the millions without jobs were employed. Germany declared war on Poland and Poland was invaded.

if you have anything to add on leave a post

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12y ago

The treaty of versailles

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Q: What were some problems that led to world war 2?
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