The classes, or castes, of ancient India were the brahmins, kshatriyas, vaisyas and sudras. The brahmins were the priest class, the kshatriyas the ruler and warrior class, the vaisyas the merchants, artisans, farmers, etc., and the sudras the peasants and laborers. There were also the "untouchables." They were the people who did not belong to any of the formal castes, and were thus looked down upon. They were typically given the occupations that members of the other castes found dishonorable or unclean.
Kings ruled the land Brahmins were the priests teachers and judges Kshatriyas were the warriors or knights Vaisyas were the farmers and merchants Sudras were the craftworkers or labourers Untouchables were the outcasts and these are the answers a.
Varnas
c.
Sanskrit
b.
Sudras
d.
the Vedas
Whether you happen to like it or not, Rumpy is speaking truth. These terms are fuzzy because they are simply fuzzy. There is no concrete basis to back anything up or nail it down. Lawyers are free to declare themselves in any area of practice they happen to like. There are some rules about referring to oneself as a specialist. That's just about it. As a totally random example, a lawyer might say he practices criminal defense but only ever do drunk driving. That's a real example. Now, should he be saying he's a drunk driving lawyer to be more accurate? There's no rule. There are only norms and patterns of usage.
It's not a matter of liking it or not. I couldn't care less. My point was that there seems to be a difference. Many firms seem to recognize that difference. And there is a logical basis for that difference. The rest is irrelevant. But, as you've suggested, the line is not always drawn, and the difference might be largely irrelevant. I'm content with agreeing that many don't see or care about the difference. But in my opinion, and apparently in the opinion of many firms, there is a difference. Given that the original question was about whether there is a difference, and what "business law" encompasses, I think my point stands. But as often happens in these discussions, opinion vs. opinion leads to wasted time. Therefore, I'll leave you two to it.
you
It kept the classes the same.
They both used their rivers to survive,They both need farmers,and that's it
Ancient India was not democratic. It was under the influence of the British.
Yes it did. We had slaves in ancient India too.
There are many stereotypes about backward classes. SC's, ST's and OBC's are backward classes.
Ancient India believed of different gods plus ancient India has many more gods than ancient Egypt. Also the ancient egyptians buried their pharaohs in a tomb and ancient india burned them.
Mostly like the rest of ancient Roman houses {different ones for different classes}.
different from today's techniques '
the plebians and the patricians
They are two separate countries
They were different becuase each class did something different
I am not very sure, but I think the Egyptians did have economy based on a division of social classes because they had different classes so they probably had different economy.
In the beginning of Ancient Egypt there was only 2 different classes. The nobles and Pharaoh and everyone else, but after a long time a middle class began to appear and 5 different classes formed. The Pharaoh, the nobles, scribes and educated people, the farmers, and the slaves.
indian people are just like aryans so it is the koran
Ancient India is in modern day India.
Ancient India is in modern day India.
It kept the classes the same.