Theoretically the law cannot be biased in accordance with gender, race, religion, ethnicity, social/economic status and so forth; in reality it depends upon the judge. In "perfect" courts a sitting judge would not allow personal experiences or prejudices to have a bearing on adjudication. In the majority of instances this holds true, but unfortunately there are those judges who abuse judicial power to further their personal agenda. Generally both persons in a dissolution of marriage procedure will receive equal consideration. Nevertheless, in many cases, at least one of the participants will believe the decision(s) rendered were biased.
Yes.Yes it is.
It usually means the answer is biased towards one particular opinion. For a simple example - a question like "Which is the best phone" might get the answer "The I-phone" - A users opinion of a particular phone will be biased towards the type of phone they are familiar with - rather than based on physical facts.
Requires six month 'cooling off' period before a final decree can be issued for one.
There are many places where one can find a divorce lawyer in New York. One can check sites such as NY Courts and FindLaw. Alternatively, once can check related forums on the topic.
Unfortunately, no. If one party to a marriage wants to get a divorce, then it will be granted with or without the consent of the other party. Courts simply will not enforce a situation where it is no longer working for some. You have the right to contest the divorce but declining the divorce will not stop the procedure from happening.
can your husband get a divorce in las Vegas without your consent
It means having groups of people that have a common interest and are influenced by those interests. Poor people are biased towards shopping for lower prices. Rich people are biased toward spending more and living a better life. In politics, biased groups can be Hispanics, blacks, Democrats, Republicans, women, Jewish people, etc. Each one is presumed to be biased towards their own particular group. For instance, the group of black people were biased to vote for the only black man to run for president. The bias of the group influenced them to vote for him because he was black, not because he would be a good president.
I assume you are saying that one wife filed for divorce and you have married someone else? If the divorce from the first wife has not been finalized and granted by the courts, you are still legally married to the first one and YOU are the bigamist.
Yes you can. It doesn't matter one iota where in the US you were married. As long as you are a legal resident of VA, you can file in the courts there.
Did you get a marriage certificate? If you got one then yes.. welcome to the club.. you have to get divorced
It means one-sided, not objective.
Yes, unless ruled on by the courts.