answersLogoWhite

0


Best Answer

No. Every owner by deed has the right to the use and possession of the property. The other owner(s) does not have the right to "oust" them without a court order.

No. Every owner by deed has the right to the use and possession of the property. The other owner(s) does not have the right to "oust" them without a court order.

No. Every owner by deed has the right to the use and possession of the property. The other owner(s) does not have the right to "oust" them without a court order.

No. Every owner by deed has the right to the use and possession of the property. The other owner(s) does not have the right to "oust" them without a court order.

User Avatar

Wiki User

12y ago
This answer is:
User Avatar
More answers
User Avatar

Wiki User

12y ago

No. Only a court order can take the person's interest in the property and assign it to the other owner.

No. Only a court order can take the person's interest in the property and assign it to the other owner.

No. Only a court order can take the person's interest in the property and assign it to the other owner.

No. Only a court order can take the person's interest in the property and assign it to the other owner.

This answer is:
User Avatar

User Avatar

Wiki User

18y ago

No. Intent has nothing to do with what actually happens in most cases in real life. Just because he claimed that was his intent, it doesn't mean he has to follow up with it.

This answer is:
User Avatar

User Avatar

Wiki User

12y ago

No. Only a court order can take the person's interest in the property and assign it to the other owner.

This answer is:
User Avatar

User Avatar

Wiki User

12y ago

No. Every owner by deed has the right to the use and possession of the property. The other owner(s) does not have the right to "oust" them without a court order.

This answer is:
User Avatar

Add your answer:

Earn +20 pts
Q: Can you force someone to sign a quit claim deed to jointly owned property if they were ousted from said property by a court order?
Write your answer...
Submit
Still have questions?
magnify glass
imp
Related questions

Is it possible to claim your property taxes if making below 10000.00?

Sure. If you itemize you can claim your full property taxes. And this is new for 2008: If you don't itemize, you can claim $500 of property taxes ($1000 if married filing jointly). See the instructions for line 40 of 2008 Form 1040.


Can you force someone to sign a quit claim deed to jointly-owned property if they have not paid their portion of the mortgage or property taxes?

You do not have the authority to force a co-owner to sign a deed. You would need to sue in court and obtain a court order that they convey their interest to you.


What is adverse claim?

An adverse claim typically means a claim that is against real property by someone other than the registered owner. It means someone is claiming rights to property levied on.


If the deed to a property is recorded jointly and one of the owners dies can family members of the decedent claim the decedents share of the property?

No. If the property was acquired as joint tenants with the right of survivorship and one dies, their interest passes automatically to the survivor by law. There is nothing for family members to claim.


What is the time limit someone can claim property left behind on someone elses property in California?

One year is the time limit someone can claim property left behind on someone else's property in the state of California. After the one year time period is up, the item is up for grabs.


Can the auto insurance check be made out to me?

If the claim is one for property damage and the insurer is paying for the repairs, the check is usually made payable jointly to the body shop and the insured. If the claim is one for damages for bodily injury and the insured was represented by an attorney, the check is normally payable jointly to the lawyer and to the insured. If the claim is made by a third party, you, as theinsured, are not named on it.


Does adding someone to Quit Claim Deed mean that the original owner is permanently forfeiting total ownership of the property?

A quit claim deed gives whoever is on it the same rights to the property as the original holder had. If you create a quit claim deed for property you hold title to and put your own name on it along with someone else, you are essentially splitting the property in half.


Can someone claim loss rent for a property that was sold?

Yes, if the rent arrearage was incurred before the sale.


Can you claim your wife as a dependent?

as long as your married yes


When someone left their property to you but they dont have a will or any family?

A person cannot 'leave' property to you unless there is a will. A promise to leave property to someone in a will must be in writing. You could try to make a claim through an equity suit but you would need convincing evidence and witnesses to prove your claim. You should consult with an attorney who can review your situation and explain your options.


Can someone quit claim a property they already had quit claim deeded to their wife?

Generally, no. When a person executes a quitclaim deed to another person, the first person no longer owns the property. The new owner is the grantee on the quitclaim deed. The former owner has no interest to transfer to someone else.In this case, the wife would be the new owner of the property.


On real property can an heir of a person named in a Joint Tenancy with Rights of Survivorship with someone else make a valid claim for ownership of the property?

NO. When two people own property as joint tenants with the right of survivorship and one dies the other AUTOMATICALLY owns the property. You cannot make a claim as an heir at law of the decedent.