Did Britain and France appease Germany and Hitler because they thought they hadn't been fair in Treaty of Versailles or were they just going along with the situation?

By the 1930's people in Britain were begining to think that the Treaty of Versailles was unfair so they let the Germans have the Rhineland back after all it was origionally their land and people, why should they not have it back. Hitler though took advantage of the situation and re-militarised right next to the border of France. This led to other things and was the spark that lit the fire of World War 2. In Britain the view that the Versailles Treaty was too harsh goes back all the way to about 1920. The hard line taken by France in 1923 when they occupied the Ruhr in response to an alleged German default on reparations led many British politicians to conclude that the French were completely unreasonable. In the 1920s there were two major changes (in Germany's favour) to the terms for paying reparations and in 1926 Germany was admitted to the League of Nations. All this was achieved by patient negotiation, not bullying or force. (Britain also helped Germany to stablize its currency in 1923 and to end inflation). However, in the 1920s Britain (and France) drew the line at territorial and defence changes. When Hitler came to power in 1933, Britain was in the throes of the Great Depression; the country was 'protecting' itself in the Empire (imperial preference and so on), and the government wasn't particularly interested in foreign affairs. (Some would say it hardly had a foreign policy). Moreover, the official policy of Britain (and France) in 1933 was multilateral disarmament. In October 1933 Hitler pulled Germany out of the disarmament talks but it took Britain and France several months to realign their policies. 1935 - Germany re-introduced conscription in defiance of the Treaty of Versailles. The moment was cleverly chosen as Britain was coming up to a General Election. As Baldwin later said, "What would people have thought if the election had been fought largely on rearmament?" 1936 - Hitler remiliarized the Rhineland. France was in the throes of internal strife that culminated in the election of the Popular Front; Britain was gripped by the abdication crisis ... 1938 - NO excuse ... ! The answer to the question is: surely a bit of both. It's also clear that Baldwin and Chamberlain had NO idea what they were really up against: they, along with many other British politicians hadn't the foggiest. It's also clear that from 1933 onwards, Britain and France never seized the initiative in foreign policy, but were constantly reacting to Hitler's agenda.