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No. If anything, it caused the opposite. For example, England was native to Germanic people [Germanic language], later conquered by Romans [Romance language], later reconquered by Germanic people (Danes) [Germanic language], later conquered by Normans and French [Romance language], and reestablished as the state of England. Since England had been under Germanic control longer, Germanic influence is more widespread, which is why the English language is labeled as a Germanic language. However, you may have noticed large similarity between English and French. This is because when the French conquered England, the French language was introduced. English is truly a fusion of Germanic languages and French. English is a Germanic language and an indirect-Romance language. Some people mistake English for a Romance language because of the similarity between English and Romance languages.

The same applies to all of Western Europe. Western Europe is split into two language regions: the Germanic north and the Romance south. The Romans controlled most of Western Europe for a thousand years and were more present in the south. Here, they maintained predominant influence and spread the Latin language, which gave birth to the Romance languages (French, Italian, Spanish, Portuguese, etc.). In the north, Germanic peoples maintained independence from the Roman Empire. They also conquered separate lands during the Roman Empire's reign, brought about the collapse of the Roman Empire, and later continued conquering. Here, they were able to maintain predominant influence and spread Germanic languages, giving birth to the modern Germanic languages (German, Swedish, Danish, Dutch, etc.).

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Q: Did invasions of Western Europe cause a loss of common language?
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