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No.
To be divisible by 6 the number must be divisible by both 2 and 3.
To be divisible by 2, the last digit of the number must be even (ie one of {0, 2, 4, 6, 8}). The last digit of 35 is 5 which is not even and so 35 is not divisible by 2.
To be divisible by 3, sum the digits of the number and if this sum is divisible by 3 then so is the original number. As the test can be applied to the sum, repeatedly summing the digits of the sums until a single digit remains, then the original number is divisible by 3 only if this single digit is one of {3, 6, 9}. For 35 3 + 5 = 8 which is not divisible by 3 (nor is is one of {3, 6, 9}, thus 35 is not divisible by 3.
As 35 is not divisible by both 2 and 3 (in fact it is divisible by neither 2 nor 3) it is not divisible by 6.
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Can 6 go into 35 yes or no?
Yes. But not evenly.
Does 3 go evenly into 35?
No. 35/3 = 11.667
Does 2 go into 35?
No. 35 is not evenly divisible by two.
Can 475 go into 35?
No. 35 is not evenly divisible by 475.
Does 35 go into 144?
No. 144 is not evenly divisible by 35.
Can 21 go into 35?
No. 35 is not evenly divisible by 21.
What can go into 28 and 35 evenly?
7
Can 35 go into 56 evenly?
56 is not a multiple of 35
How do you convert 35 over 6 into a mixed number?
Allow 6 to go into 35 evenly, then figure out the remainder. For example, 6*5 = 30 and then there is 5 left over so the mixed number is 5 and 5/6
Why does 708 go into 6 evenly?
708 does not go into six evenly.
How many times does 20 go into 700?
35 times.
Does 35 go into 100 evenly?
No - 100/35 = 2.857142 recurring (that is, 2.857142857142...)
