It depends on why, if you had sick days/ vacation days he does. It depends on why he gave you time off from the jobs. This could considered being laid off, usually he does, just a lower amount.
If you gave a two week notice in writing the employer should compensate you for that time although you don't work there. All depends on state laws, check with HR.
Sure, although most will provide a duplicate, at least the first time for a recent year for free. But otherwise, maintaining them, employee time researching and finding them, etc is costly and they deserve to be compensated. They gave it to you for free...you lost it.
The employer has to pay you whatever you are owed from time you have worked, but that is it, unless you have a contract that states otherwise (you probably do not).
Who was archimedes employer
"No employer "gives" jobs to anyone. Employers OWN the jobs and LOAN them to workers for whatever time the employer sees fit. Employers can recover their jobs, dismissing the worker and replacing with others.No one gave jobs to 8.5 persons. The question is ridiculous."This person means Who gave jobs to 8.5 million blue and white collar workers? And the answer is Works Progress Administration.
What legal actions can i take if my employer doesnt pay me?
any time you want, there is no limit, all you have to do is be willing to pay the closing costs, although it is best to wait atleast 2 years. Jamison.
On paid work time, certainly. On the employer's computer at any time, certainly. Otherwise, no.
No.
When you quit or get fired.
No.
Generally yes, unless all the parties concerned take the legal steps necessary to establish that although the mother was married at the time she gave birth the father is a man other than her husband.Generally yes, unless all the parties concerned take the legal steps necessary to establish that although the mother was married at the time she gave birth the father is a man other than her husband.Generally yes, unless all the parties concerned take the legal steps necessary to establish that although the mother was married at the time she gave birth the father is a man other than her husband.Generally yes, unless all the parties concerned take the legal steps necessary to establish that although the mother was married at the time she gave birth the father is a man other than her husband.