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How much land did a knight own?

Updated: 8/23/2023
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14y ago

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Yes they did!

The only reason why they did have land is because of the feudal system. This is where the lord gives land to the barons who give it to the knights, who then give it to the peasant's in return the peasent's give food, tax and solders to the knights, then they give it to the barons who give it to the lord

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8y ago
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8y ago

This is a complicated topic. The following is a brief overview.

In England, the manor was the basic unit of the hierarchical feudal system of land ownership. A manor (fief) would typically be held by a knight and he would have control over the land along with its workers. This was a contractual arrangement with the overlord. The knight pledged fealty (fee) to his lord in return for the estate. If the knight breached the contract by failing to honor his obligations the estate would be forfeited and the lord would take back possession. The fief could be passed on to a son who was willing to pledge his service under a new contract.

This system was always evolving throughout the middle ages.

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6y ago

they attained land by farming and trading for land, they exchanged theirs goods such as.. corn, carrots, farming,cattle, sheep, and hay, and weapons

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13y ago

A knight was a noble, so yes he did. He gave his service to a king in return gained power and land.

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