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Firstly, the question should be narrowed. While the Ottoman Empire declined after the death of Suleiman I, the Safavid Empire in Persia was only beginning to rise and the Mughal Empire in India had not even begun to form.

As for the reason for the Ottoman Empire's decline, Suleiman I was the last Ottoman Emperor to care more about the state than the harem where he could indulge in pleasures of the flesh.

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Q: How did the death of Suleiman I lead to the decline of Islamic States?
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