There is no evidence that Shakespeare had ever heard of Aristotle's Poetics and considerable evidence that he had not. The evidence that he had not is that virtually none of his tragedies pay attention to Aristotle's strictures on what tragedy should be about.
For example, King Lear changes from an autocrat, to a madman, to someone who is serenely centred to someone who is shattered by grief. Consider what Aristotle thought were essential to tragic heroes--that they be good (is Lear's treatment of Cordelia and Kent good?), appropriate (is the spectacle of a king stripping himself naked and acting like a child appropriate?), and consistent. King Lear is none of these, and particularly not consistent.
The Shakespearean tragic hero who most complies with Aristotle's ideas is Timon in Timon of Athens; the one who least complies is Hamlet. Thank heaven Shakespeare knew nothing of Aristotle.
Some people think that Shakespeare is Italian and that his real name: Michelangelo Florio Crollalanza was later translated to Shakespeare. Crolla= to shake or break, Lanza( lancia )= spear, so Crollalanza = Shakespeare, but it's just a theory, it's never been proven. The more acceptable theory is that he took his father's surname, and because his father's surname was Shakespeare, he had the same surname, just like virtually everyone else in England then and now.
Shakespeare certainly wrote the play Romeo and Juliet, unless you subscribe to the theory that someone else wrote all of his plays under his name. Shakespeare did not invent the plot of Romeo and Juliet, but then Shakespeare did not invent any of his plots.
His flaw is said to be Pride, but the theory that ancient playwrights put tragic flaws in their characters the same way Shakespeare did is a misunderstanding based on a mistranslation. Oepidus was said to have suffered tragedy because of Hamartia a Greek word which then meant 'A mistake made in ignorance'. Later translators misread the word as meaning 'Sin' or 'Flaw'.
Watching Henry V should disprove this theory quite handily.
Not remotely. There is a theory pushed by one John Hudson that Amelia Bassano Lanier was both Jewish and the author of Shakespeare's plays, but her mother was a Gentile which means she wasn't Jewish. That's the first problem with the theory. There are many others, a number of them explained in a response to the latest article about Hudson's theory on the linked website. Interested readers should also look at "Contested Will" and "Shakespeare in Truth," both of which explore the fantasy world of people claiming Shakespeare couldn't have written the plays. All of the conspiracy theorists ignore the fact that nobody ever raised the question until the mid-1850s.
Aristotal view on Revolution
Aristotles theory stated that all substances were built from 4 elements, earth, air, fire, and water
tragedy
Aristotle
tragedy
Great personal fulfillment is achieved when a person is given the freedom to pursue his dreams.
According to Aristotle's theory of tragedy, tragic plays are morally edifying. The audience undergoes a catharsis when witnessing the hero's tragic fall.
The theory of The Tragedy of the Commons is an economic theory penned by Garrett Hardin. It explains that through greed and self-interest, common resources such as national parks and the atmosphere are being slowly destroyed.
Aristotle; tragedy
The gist of this conspriracy theory is that William Shakespeare did not pen all his plays himself. If or even how this can be proved is doubtful.
Copernicus believed the planetary motions were due to:
Aristotle's theory of drama was this: For a play/ tragedy to be good it had to have this order. Conflict Complication Climax Resolution