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There is no evidence that Shakespeare had ever heard of Aristotle's Poetics and considerable evidence that he had not. The evidence that he had not is that virtually none of his tragedies pay attention to Aristotle's strictures on what tragedy should be about.

For example, King Lear changes from an autocrat, to a madman, to someone who is serenely centred to someone who is shattered by grief. Consider what Aristotle thought were essential to tragic heroes--that they be good (is Lear's treatment of Cordelia and Kent good?), appropriate (is the spectacle of a king stripping himself naked and acting like a child appropriate?), and consistent. King Lear is none of these, and particularly not consistent.

The Shakespearean tragic hero who most complies with Aristotle's ideas is Timon in Timon of Athens; the one who least complies is Hamlet. Thank heaven Shakespeare knew nothing of Aristotle.

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Q: How does shakespeare employ Aristotles theory on tragedy in King Lear?
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