At perfect 100% efficiency, the Actual Mechanical Advantage should equal the Ideal Mechanical Advantage.
No. That would be the same as having a perpetual motion machine which is impossible.
an ideal machine
Then the machine would have a greater output power, or alternately, require less input power.
Such a machine would have an efficiency of 100% and, as the question suggests, it would be a miracle. No real machine is 100% efficient because there are always losses.
The smaller amount of friction a machine has, the more efficient it becomes.
No. That would be the same as having a perpetual motion machine which is impossible.
Such a machine would be described as "One hundred percent efficient". Such a machine doesn't exist.
an ideal machine
100% efficiency would mean that the machine is able to transform energy from one form into another without any loss of energy from the system in the process. For it to have greater than 100% efficiency, it would have to somehow generate additional energy, not contained in the system, in the process, and this is not possible.
Then the machine would have a greater output power, or alternately, require less input power.
When you wish to compare is to another number.
Such a machine would have an efficiency of 100% and, as the question suggests, it would be a miracle. No real machine is 100% efficient because there are always losses.
No heat loss = maximum output. There would be no loss of energy, which is an ideal condition.
The smaller amount of friction a machine has, the more efficient it becomes.
A quantitative assessment involves numbers. This says 45% so it is quantitative. Qualitative would involve a description: fairly efficient, very efficient or more efficient than before.
Well one way you can answer this question is, Kidney and a watching machine are simular because, they both have a job of cleaning somthing.
Percent is always a fraction, one number compared to another. Without anything to compare to, one number can be anything. My money would be on 100%