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Not necessarily. Morals are, by definition, more subjective than the law.

You may have a moral obligation to do something for which there is no legal punishment available at all. Maybe you have a moral obligation to give your children presents as your money may permit, but there is no legal obligation to give them more than the necessaries, even if you are filthy rich.

In other cases you may have a moral obligation that merely creates a separate and distinct legal obligation.

For example, you may have a moral obligation to perform services on a contract, but you cannot be physically forced to actually perform. The only "legal obligation" would be to pay for damages caused by your failure to perform, if any.

Therefore, even if there is a legal obligation stemming from such a moral obligation ("you gave your word"), they are not the same obligation.

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Q: If a promise clearly makes a moral obligation than does the law make it a legal obligation?
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