Probably not unless you can terminate the contract at any time without penalty.
A contract of guaranty is a collateral undertaking, and presupposes an original contract; while a contract of indemnity is original and independent. In a contract of indemnity, the undertaking is to make good and save harmless the person, with whom the contract is made, upon an obligation of such person to a third person; while, in a contract of guaranty, the obligation is to answer for the debt, default, or miscarriage of another to the person with whom the contract is made.
it depends on the contract that you have with your original agent. If you are on sole agency, then yes. if you are on a joint agency contract and if they have not introduced the buyer and they are on a winner takes all basis, then no
"Was Fisher manufacrurer of homes acquired by nother manufacturer
A land contract is just like any other contract, complete with contract law principles. No one can sell the property until either the contract is either fufilled or breached. If it is fufilled, then it becomes the property of the one purchasing the property and after they have successfully completed the contract, they then are free to sell it to whomever they wish. But, if the contract is breached, it is then still the original owners and they can do as they wish, keep the property, sell the property or find another individual willing to enter into another land lease contract. So, while the property is tied up in a land lease contract, no one can sell or buy it until either a satisfaction or breach of the contract is committed.
how about gained or acquired or even got.
They normally contract together.
I had a dispute with a credit card company. I sent several certified letters to them, requesting a signed (by me), copy of the original contract i allegedly signed with them. They ignored me, and I quit paying them. This has been 2 years now, and I have not heard from them, and my credit was not affected by this. I have learned if a credit card company sells your alleged debt to another card company, your original contract somehow disappears. The card company may threaten you, but the bottom line, there is a consumer bill of rights, and you are entitled to make them provide the original contract. (which they can't do)
Since your ex-fiance cosigned on the loan, they are just as much obligated to the contract as you are. The only way they could get their name "off the loan" was, as you said, for the original borrower to obtain a new loan, in order pay off the original obligation. If this is not possible, then she is locked into the original contract.
Yes because is if you buy a contract it is going to cost more. And if you don't have a contract it will cost more.
treaty
That would depend on what you contract with your employer binds you to. An employment contract may be a negotiated document and it is therefore not possible to give you a general answer. However, IF your employment contract precludes you from starting another business then YES you would be in breach of contract if you did so.
A CDMA phone shouldn't need to be unlocked. It normally isn't "locked" in the first place, unless it is still under the original contract with Verizon or Sprint services. If it IS still under contract, it is illegal for you to use it on another carrier until you have finished your contract or paid your contract early conclusion penalty fee.