Better ask your B/K attorney on that. OR the LENDER. IN FILING CHAPTER 7, YOU CAN KEEP THE VEHICLE AS LONG AS YOU CAN MAKE THE PAYMENTS. HOWEVER, IF YOU DID NOT RE-AFFIRM THAT LOAN AGREEMENT, YOU MAY SURRENDER THE VEHICLE TO THE LENDER. SINCE IT WAS INCLUDED IN THE BANKRUPCTY, YOU WILL NOT BE RESPONSIBLE FOR ANY FURTHER MONEY OWED TO THE LENDER. IF THAT LOAN WAS RE-AFFIRMED, YOU CAN STILL SURRENDER THE VEHICLE, BUT WILL HAVE TO PAY THE BALANCE THAT REMAINS ON THE LOAN PLUS ANY FEES, TOW, ETC.
If all you did was sign the "Statement of Intention" saying you intended to reaffirm the debt, and did not in fact reaffirm the debt with a reaffirmation filed with the court, and did not continue making car payments after the date of filing, the secured debt survived the filing and you are not entitled to the title until you pay the loan off. The lender can repossess the vehicle and sell it. It's not a question of what the court did, but what you did or did not do with respect to the loan.
You are not clear about who you're making payments to: the mortgage company for your mortgage, or to the association to pay assessments that are in arrears. If you mean payments to make up arrears, and the association filed a lien on your title, review the agreement that you made with them about making payments. It's possible that filing a lien is part of your agreement in some way. Or, that the association has filed a lien against you in error. If you mean payments to pay your mortgage, and you are not paying your assessments, your association filed a lien to collect monies that you owe in past-due assessments. (You have to pay both: mortgage and assessments.) If your assessments are up to date, check with the board to better understand why a lien has been filed by the association on your title.
When you either voluntarily give up the house or you stop making payments (foreclosure).
Go to where the bankruptcy is filed and have the file pulled and there will be an accounting of all the debts and payments being currently made. It is public information.
you can't
Those who filed claims and had them approved will receive payments by 12/31/12
My sister filed and was discharged in a bankruptcy, she did not reaffirm the house. She has moved out, she has homeowners on the property but is it still good if she does not live in the home.
I don't know about California, but if you filed bankruptcy, you do have to answer to a Judge as to your actions, the non-payment, and/or concealment. The loan was secured by the car so if the Judge sees that the car is worth what is owed--you either reafirm and make payments or you give the car back.
Home ownership is shown by Deed, which you should have received when you obtained the property and which should be filed with the County Clerk.
When you co-sign on a loan or mortgage for someone, you are promising to make the loan payments if they can't. When someone files for bankruptcy, they are claiming that they cannot make their payments. It would stand to reason that if someone you co-signed on a mortgage for files for bankruptcy that you would then be liable for making the payments.
It's not impossible, but it is highly unlikely. Lenders will probably not view you as a "good risk." The ususual procedure is to reaffirm the loan and make arrrangements for catching up on missed payments with the original lender.
IF its filed properly,NO. Why not ask your B/K attorney this question??? That's what you pay them for.