Math and Arithmetic

Algebra

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If the exponents are associated with non-integers, or if the exponents are non-integers, it is very likely that the expression does not represent integers.

If the exponents are associated with non-integers, or if the exponents are non-integers, it is very likely that the expression does not represent integers.

If the exponents are associated with non-integers, or if the exponents are non-integers, it is very likely that the expression does not represent integers.

If the exponents are associated with non-integers, or if the exponents are non-integers, it is very likely that the expression does not represent integers.

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0If the exponents are associated with non-integers, or if the exponents are non-integers, it is very likely that the expression does not represent integers.

🙏🏿

0🤨

0😮

0😂

0One possible option is : "n, (n+1) where n is an integer".

3 x 7 = 21 No exponents necessary.

The largest possible values for the integers are 47, 49, and 51.

After multiplying or dividing two rational expressions it is sometimes possible to simplify the resulting expression.

If they are integers, then the possible answers are {1, 6, 8} and {2, 4, 9}.If not, there are infinitely many possible solutions.If they are integers, then the possible answers are {1, 6, 8} and {2, 4, 9}.If not, there are infinitely many possible solutions.If they are integers, then the possible answers are {1, 6, 8} and {2, 4, 9}.If not, there are infinitely many possible solutions.If they are integers, then the possible answers are {1, 6, 8} and {2, 4, 9}.If not, there are infinitely many possible solutions.

The procedure is known as "addition", with the possible additional requirement of "carrying" depending on the specific integers.

yes and it is possible to do

If I understand your question, the answer is 'no', because all integers are rational numbers.

Not possible in consecutive integers, nearest is consecutive even integers: 148 & 152

In every possible way- because whole numbers and integers are the same.

The integers from 0 to 11.

Find the prime factorization of the number 32 use exponents when possible

It is not possible to answer the question as it appears because it makes no sense whatsoever.

No . Since an integer can be a negative number, it's possible for the sum of two integers to be negative.

There are no expressions given in the question.Otherwise, there are infinitely many possible expressions. Any expression of the from 3x*y/y where y is any non-zero constant or function - of x or other variables - will be equivalent.

297 integers, with an average of 5, multiply that to get what their sum was before averaging (=35). Make 6 of the integers 1 to find that greatest possible integer in the list.-Cheers.Actually you make 6 of your integers 1 you would get something else

Ideas cannot be protected; only expressions of them. There has to be something tangible.

4a + 4b is one possible answer.

The sum of two consecutive odd integers is an even number. There is no possible answer to this question.

No possible solution.The sum of any two odd integers is an even integer.

No. There is no set of three consecutive even integers with a sum of 40.

Select any 4 integers between 0 and 10. These will represent the first of the ordered pairs. For each of these select any one of the integers between -12 and 5. These need not be different from each other and will represent the second of the ordered pair. These four pairs defines a function.There are more than 32 nonillion (32,000,000,000,000,000,000,000,000,000) possible functions, so I hope you will understand why I do not wish to list them.

Defining powers this way makes the laws of powers continue being valid, for fractional exponents. Mainly, as you might know, (ab)c = abc. For positive integers "b" and "c", this is easy to visualize. Now, for example, for (21/2)2, you would expect the result to be 2 according to this law. This is only possible if 21/2 is equal to the square root of 2.

That's not possible. Adding two odd integers, the result will always be even.

No. There are infinitely many rational numbers between any two integers.

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