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Answered 2010-06-15 19:35:38

Yes. To prove this, we must first assume the answer to be no. If there are a finite number of primes, there must be a largest prime. We'll call this Prime number n. n! is n*(n-1)*(n-2)*...*3*2*1. n!, therefore, is divisible by all numbers smaller than or equal to n. It follows, then that n!+1 is divisible by none of them, except for 1. There are two possibilities: n!+1 is divisible by prime numbers between n and n!, or it is itself prime. Either way, we have proved that there are prime numbers greater than n, contradicting our initial assumption that primes are finite, proving that the number of primes is infinite.

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