0
What do you have to do to get a mechanical advantage greater than 1?
Wiki User
∙ 11y ago
Well it depends on what you are using for a pulley the mechanical advantage is equal to the number of ropes lifting the object such as if you have one pulley the MA (mechanical advantage) is equal to 1 if you have two pullies the MA is 2 if you are using a lever such as a seesaw you have to move the fulcrum as close to the object being lifted and have to longest possible input arm. If you modify a seesaw a 60 pound child can lift a 200 pound adult. That is about all i know hope it helps if you are using a different simple machine or need more help email me at : icecbejohn@Yahoo.com
Wiki User
∙ 11y ago
Add your answer:
Earn +20 pts
Is it possible for a first or second class lever to have a mechanical advantage less than one or for a third class lever to have a mechanical advantage greater than one?
Second class lever. . . . Always greater than 1 . Third class lever . . . . . Always less than 1 . First class lever . . . . . Can be greater than 1 or less than 1 depending on position of fulcrum.
Which factor must increase to give a machine a mechanical advantage greater than 1?
output force (:
Is 1.4 greater than 1?
1.4 is greater than 1.
Is 1 greater than 100.00?
no 1 is not greater than 100
What numbers are greater than -1 and less than -1?
0
Why can't a pulley have a mechanical advantage greater than 1?
The mechanical advantage of a pulley can be greater than 1.The efficiency cannot but that is a different matter.
What class or classes of lever always have a mechanical advantage greater than 1?
A second class lever always has a mechanical advantage greater than 1.
When is the mechanical advantage greater than one?
The IMA of a machine is greater than 1 whenever the output force is greater than the input force.
Is it possible for a first or second class lever to have a mechanical advantage less than one or for a third class lever to have a mechanical advantage greater than one?
Second class lever. . . . Always greater than 1 . Third class lever . . . . . Always less than 1 . First class lever . . . . . Can be greater than 1 or less than 1 depending on position of fulcrum.
Which factor must increase to give a machine a mechanical advantage greater than 1?
output force (:
The mechanical advantage of a machine is always greater than 1?
well the advantage of that is pie, not math pie but pie that you eat
If a machine has a mechanical advantage much greater than 1 how will the output force be in comparison to the input force?
The Output Force Will Most Likely Be Greater Than The Input Force. So "OUTPUT" Is Greater Than "INPUT".
When is mechanical advantage less than 1?
When the output is less than the input. Mechanical advantage is expressed as the ratio of the output to the input.
Why inclined planes are classified as force multipliers?
Because it always has a mechanical advantage greater then 1.
Can a inclined plane have a mechanical advantage of less than 1?
The mechanical advantage of an inclined plane is equal to length divided by height (l/h). Therefore, if the length is less than than the height, the mechanical advantage would be less than one.
What increases when you have a mechanical advantage of less than 1?
2
If the output force is less than the input force of a simple machine the mechanical advantage is less than one.?
True ~ LiL' Diablo
