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Q: What simple machine has an IMA less than 1?
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What describes the relationship between friction and IMA for a simple machine?

An ideal machine has no friction. -Nn


What does it mean when the IMA is less than 1.0?

If an IMA (ideal mechanical advantage) is less than one, that means the lever the force is applied to is shorter than the lever lifting the load.


What is the formula to find mechanical advantage?

The mechanical advantage that a machine would have without friction or in another term is that you can find the IDEAL MECHANICAL ADVANTAGE (IMA) OF A MACHINE IS BY HAVING A MACHINE WITH NO FRICTION, ALSO BY MULTIPLYING YOUR EFFORT FORCE BY 2, HOWEVER BECAUSE OF FRICTION AND THE WEIGHT THE ACTUAL MA WILL BE LESS.


When is the mechanical advantage greater than one?

The IMA of a machine is greater than 1 whenever the output force is greater than the input force.


When was Sabitsuita Machine Gun de Ima o Uchinukō created?

Sabitsuita Machine Gun de Ima o Uchinukō was created on 1997-09-03.


Why do you multiply to find the total mechanical advantage?

The "Ideal Mechanical Advantage" of a simple machine isIMA = output force /input force . To find the 'actual' or real-world mechanical advantage,multiply the IMA by the machine's efficiency.


Why is IMA larger than AMA?

IMA is larger than AMA, because the IMA is the FATHER of AMA. ec8f035c-5e88-47cb-8476-d5e2234a0aa2 1.03.01


What are the formulas for simple machines?

the formulas for simple machines help find the ama, ima, and the efficency


What is the multiplication force by a machine under ideal condition?

Ideal Mechanical Advantage (IMA)


What is the formula for lever?

(AMA / IMA)100 Where AMA represents the actual mechanical advantage and IMA represents the Ideal Mechanical advantage. AMA = Fr/Fe where Fr equals the force of the resistance from the fulcrum, and Fe equals the force of the effort. IMA = De/Dr where De equals the Distance of the effort from the fulcrum and Dr equals the distance of the resistance from the fulcrum


The efficiency of a real machine?

Efficiency is equal to the ratio of work input to work output; for an ideal machine this ratio is equal to 1 or 100%. For a real machine this ratio is always less than 1 because some of the work input is used to overcome mechanical friction within the machine which does not contribute to the work output of the machine.


How do you calculate the ideal mechanical advantage of a lever?

It's 1. IMA = Distance in / Distance out. A single pulley doesn't do anything toward mechanical advantage, it changes the direction of the force. Not always. A single-axeled pulley (the typical pulley) has an IMA of 1, having one axel. If there was a second axel, then the IMA would = 2, so on and so forth. The easy way to do it is IMA = # of axels.