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no machine has one
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∙ 14y ago
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Does an ideal machine would have an efficiency greater than one?
No, an efficiency greater than one would not be possible, since that would violate a very fundamental law of physics: conservation of energy. The efficiency of an "ideal machine" would be one, in many cases; the efficiency of an ideal Carnot engine would be less than one.
What is difference between reversible machine and self locking machine?
Self locking machine has efficiency less than 50% but reversible machines has efficiency more than 50%
Describe why a high-efficiency machine is more desirable thana low-efficiency machine?
A high efficiency machine will produce more of what is it that you want with the same power as the low efficiency one. In other words, for a low efficiency machine do as much as a high efficiency one, you have to give it more power (energy).
Why is a high efficiency machine is more desirable than a low efficiency machine?
A high efficiency machine will produce more of what is it that you want with the same power as the low efficiency one. In other words, for a low efficiency machine do as much as a high efficiency one, you have to give it more power (energy).
Is a ideal machine has an efficiency of less than one equal to one greater than one?
ideal machines have mechanical efficeincy equal to 1 (100% efficient) since efficiency is the ratio of the power output to the power input
Why is it that efficiency of a machine is less than 1?
The efficiency is always less than one because some of the energy is always useless for what you want. Most wasted energy eventually turns into heat. therefore the efficiency is like a percentage with 1 being 100% a device can't be 100% efficient as some energy is wasted. To work out the efficiency of a device you need to do the total useful energy produced divided by the total energy that is inputted into the device
What is the maximum efficiency any machine can have?
Mathematically, efficiency = (energy output) divided by (energy input) as a percentage. As if we couldn't figure this out for ourselves, one of the laws of Thermodynamics formally tells us "You can't get more energy out than what you put in." Applying this law to the formula for efficiency, it says that the maximum possible efficiency is 100%. However, the next law of Thermodynamics says "You can't even get that much out."
Can a machine be more than 100 percent efficient?
100% efficiency would mean that the machine is able to transform energy from one form into another without any loss of energy from the system in the process. For it to have greater than 100% efficiency, it would have to somehow generate additional energy, not contained in the system, in the process, and this is not possible.
Why efficiency of class c amplifier is high?
It conducts for less than one half cycle of the input.
If a machine's input work and output work are equal the machine has high?
It has 100% efficiency, and one might say that the machine has replaced friction with fiction.
If the input force is less than the input force of a simple machine the mechanical advantage is less than one?
it means the mechanical advantage is greater.
If the output force is less than the input force of a simple machine the mechanical advantage less than one?
it means the mechanical advantage is greater.
