What is the correct translation of John chapter 1 verse 1 from the original Holy Bible?

Answer 1

The reason this question normally comes up is that it pertains to Jehovah's Witnesses' New World Translation, within which the Greek for the third clause of John 1:1 is rendered as, "and the Word was a god." Obviously, a controversy arises when it is that the more common Bible's most anyone sees - that is, as produced by Trinitarian influenced scholarship - are found to present this clause as saying, "and the Word was God."

By way of their different rendering, some wrongly claim that the NWT wording would have John being a promoter of polytheism, that is, as though here were a believer/worshiper of more than the One God - an idea which would certainly be in direct opposition to the strict Jewish monotheistic system of belief. Although many are unaware of the following, for some clarification on this, it is helpful to consider Jesus' own mention of other "gods," found at John 10:34, 35, as He was quoting from Psalm 82:6. Curiously, most every Bible Commentary agrees that the ones called "gods" here were men, yes, as the God appointed magistrates/judges of Israel. In fact, one commentary explained it this way:

"The Hebrew for 'gods' ('elohîm) could refer to various exalted beings besides Yahweh [or, Jehovah], without implying any challenge to monotheism,..."

Taken from: Blomberg, Craig L. (b.?-d.?), Distinguished Professor of New Testament, Denver Seminary, Littleton, Colorado; Ph.D., University of Aberdeen, Scotland. The Historical Reliability of John's Gospel: Issues & Commentary. (Downers Grove, Illinois: InterVarsity Press, c2002), "The feast of Dedication" ([John] 10:22-42), p. 163. BS2615.6.H55 B56 2002 / 2001051563.

Therefore, with God knowing that Jesus ("the Word" - as His perfect spokesman) was in line to being the Greatest of any magistrate or human judge, it would certainly be very easy for John to be inspired to designate Jesus as "a god" - but this time, with even with greater qualifications than any of those also called by the same title, just as the rest of his Gospel account of Jesus' life and teachings so clearly testifies!

Answer 2

John presents Jesus as God who was present at the Creation. The Word means nothing other in this context than a name for Jesus. While all Gospel writers believed in Christ's divinity, John focuses more on a theological interpretation of Christ and His work.

Answer:

It means exactly what it says. The WORD... the "Creating Agent of God" in the "Old Testament," who is Jesus Christ [John 1:3] - "was made flesh." He was born a weak, lowly flesh and blood man, and temporarily dwelled with us -- PERFECTLY... in the Grace and Truth of His Father... so that we might in the fulness of time be the recipients of His grace.

The "inspired" word John used for "dwelt" in this passage is unique in its meaning, far deeper than just "living among us." The word "skenoo" means to "tent" or "encamp."

The "Literal Bible" says: "...and PITCHED {HIS} TENT[dwelt] among us..." (John 1:14). So, a better English translation of John 1:14 would be: "...the WORD was made flesh, and TABERNACLED among us...".

An interesting Bible study of Jesus' birth, recorded in Luke 1, which parallels the events of John the Baptist's "detailed" birth, leads to the likely conclusion that Jesus was most probably born on the first day of the FEAST OF TABERNACLES. This next-to-the-last annual feast of God [and the conclusion of His plan] both pictures man's frightfully fragile and "temporary" existence in the flesh [these "booths"... our mortal lives... our temporarily pitched tents, which are our bodies]... but also pictures the coming MILLENNIAL RULE OF JESUS CHRIST ON THE EARTH.

The thousand year rule of King Jesus, who, when He comes to power on earth: "...it shall come to pass, that every onethat is left of all the nations which came against Jerusalem shall even go up from year to year TO WORSHIP THE KING, the LORD of Hosts, and to KEEP THE FEAST OF TABERNACLES." (Zech.14:16)

The "wise men" who visited Joseph, Mary and the boy at home, as many as two years after Jesus' birth... came to pay homage to A KING!!! And it was much, much more than a pretense or metaphor.

The mortal, "flesh and blood" Jesus "pitched His tent" and TABERNACLED with us for awhile, to accomplish the selfless and violent mission of love His Father had given Him to do. To shed that fragile mortal life [and His DIVINE BLOOD]... that God's creation might be redeemed from their bondage to Satan... and have Eternal Life opened up to all the families and nations of the earth.

The Feast of Tabernacles transcends deceived man's notion that it's merely a "Jewish feast." It's the PICTURE OF CHRIST AS THE KING OF THE WORLD... over ALL MEN... all of His creation... ALL NATIONS... not just Jews.

Jesus became flesh... and temporarily tabernacled with us... and has temporarily been called away, but He's coming back. And when He does... He won't "tabernacle" with us. He'll head up the Government of God and RULE OVER US!

"...He shall be great, and shall be called the Son of the Highest: and the Lord God shall give unto Him THE THRONE OF HIS FATHER DAVID: and HE SHALL REIGN OVER THE HOUSE OF JACOB FOR EVER; and OF HIS KINGDOM THERE SHALL BE NO END." (Luke 1:32-33)

Answer 3

"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. "

Substitute "Jesus" for the phrase "the Word" and you will understand it.

"In the beginning there was Jesus, and Jesus was with God, and Jesus was God."

The verse simply states that Jesus is God.

Answer 4

The Epistles of John are thought to have been written in a moderately Gnostic Christian community. The concept of 'light' was of great significance to the early Gnostics, and was the reason the were strongly vegetarian - they believed that vegetaqbles, especially melons, contained more 'light'.

1 John chapter 1 says that God is light and that if we have fellowship with him we can not walk in darkness, and we have fellowship one with the other.

Next, the blood of Jesus cleans us from all sins. We can not say we have no sin - that is a lie. So, having sin, we need Jesus who will forgive our sins.

Answer 5

John Chapter 1

1. In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

2. The same was in the beginning with God.

3. All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.

Answer 6

lt could refer to as John in The Bible....It could mean John chapter 1 in the bible.

Another Answer:

John reveals Jesus, the Word of God, as eternal and a member of the God family who the Father created all things by. This 'In the beginning' goes back to the infinite time when only the God Family existed and rapidly brings us forward to the time of His life.

Answer 7

A:The ancient Greek philosophers developed the concept of Logos, which is usually translated as 'Word', although the meaning is much broader than that, and 'Reason' could be a better approximation. The philosophers believed that the Word was somehow responsible for the creation of the World. This Logos or Word was taken up by Philo of Alexandria in the Hellenistic Jewish world, where it seems to have become conflated with Sophia(Wisdom, as in the Book of Proverbs). The author of John's Gospel saw the Word as representing Jesus.

Whereas the synoptic gospels saw Jesus as a human adopted by God, John now saw him as fully divine and existing since the beginning of time. It is unclear from this Gospel whether he believed that Jesus even had a human birth, since John seems to deny that Jesus was born in Bethlehem.

The following two key verses tell us that, for John, Jesus was pre-existing and that he became human and dwelt among us: John 1:1: "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God." John 1:14: "And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth."

Answer 8

The ancient Greek philosophers developed the concept of Logos, which is usually translated as 'Word', although the meaning is much broader than that, and 'Reason' could be a better approximation. The philosophers believed that the Word was somehow responsible for the creation of the World. This Logos or Word was taken up by Philo of Alexandria in the Hellenistic Jewish world, where it seems to have become conflated with Sophia(Wisdom). The author of John's Gospel saw the Word as representing Jesus.

Whereas the synoptic gospels saw Jesus as a human adopted by God, John now saw him as fully divine and existing since the beginning of time. It is unclear from this Gospel whether he believed that Jesus even had a human birth, since John seems to deny that Jesus was born in Bethlehem.

The following two key verses tell us that, for John, Jesus was pre-existing and that he became human and dwelt among us: John 1:1: "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God." John 1:14: "And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth."

Answer 9

Based on Greek grammatical forms (John was written in Koine Greek), the correct translation of John 1:1 would normally be "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god." However, this implies polytheism, which is antithetic to mainstream Christianity, resulting in the preferred translation, "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God."

There continues to be debate, because rules of grammar can be broken, so the preferred translation is not unarguably wrong.