From 1700 onwards, the language of Scotland was Modern Scots.
Modern Scots is divided into five dialect groups which are:
About 1 million in 1800.
1820 and 1841.For Apex :)
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That was a gold mine in the 1800
No, England does not own Scotland and never has. In 1603 King James VI of Scotland took over the English throne and became King James I of England, a Scottish king ruling England. In 1707 Scotland and England united their parliments and became The United Kingdom of Great Britain.Note: At the time Scotland and England united, Wales was considered a part of England hence the reason that Wales is not represented on the Union Flag. Also it wasn't until 1800 that Ireland joined the union (the part now known as the Republic of Ireland left the union in 1922, while Northern Ireland has remained a part of the UK). Currently the UK is made up of the countries of Scotland, England, Wales and Northern Ireland. All are equall and Scotland, Wales and Northern Ireland all have their own devolved governments (although all major decisions such as foreign affairs and defence are made by the UK government that includes Ministers from all the nations of the UK).Ultimately, the current English throne is Scottish- James VI of Scotland became James I of England.England is just one of four countries in the union, it is governed directly from Westminster, as is the United Kingdom, as England don't have their own exclusive parliament like Scotland, Wales and N.Ireland. Scotland isn't owned by England nor have they ever been because there is a union. However England cannot currently get independence from the United Kingdom as the English haven't bothered to vote for their own parliament whereas Scotland has.Scotland is part of the united kingdom they may have there own goverment but they still are under the crown and David Cameron is still there prime minister
Scotland didn't have its own King in 1800. In 1800, George iii was the British king, including Scotland.
1800
No, Scotland was in union with England then.
1700 to 1800
100
Most people spoke English in England in 1749.
1600 was a leap year. 1700 and 1800 were not because they were not divisible by 400. If a year is divisible by 100, but not by 400, then it is not a leap year. That is the rules of a leap year. So 1600 was, but 1700, 1800 and 1900 were not; 2000 was and 2100 will not be.
in the 1700's and 1800's the money they used whereShillingsFarthingsSixpenccesthreepencesHalf penniesHalf crowns
1700. 1748 is closer to 1700 than 1800.
Around 1700-1800
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