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Answered 2013-11-20 15:52:52

1/2 if the quarter is 'fair'.

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None, since that would imply that in 18 cases the coin did not show heads or tails!


Complementary events are events that are the complete opposite. The compliment of event A is everything that is not event A. For example, the complementary event of flipping heads on a coin would be flipping tails. The complementary event of rolling a 1 or a 2 on a six-sided die would be rolling a 3, 4, 5, or 6. (The probability of A compliment is equal to 1 minus the probability of A.)


Experimental probability is calculated by taking the data produced from a performed experiment and calculating probability from that data. An example would be flipping a coin. The theoretical probability of landing on heads is 50%, .5 or 1/2, as is the theoretical probability of landing on tails. If during an experiment, however, a coin is flipped 100 times and lands on heads 60 times and tails 40 times, the experimental probability for this experiment for landing on heads is 60%, .6 or 6/10. The experimental probability of landing on tails would be 40%, .4, or 6/10.


There are many different types of mathematical experiments in math, but the most easy one I can think of would be the Experimental Probability. Example: Flipping a coin and recording your answers to see the actual probability of landing on heads or tails.


Since the probability of getting tails is 50% or 0.5, the probability of three tails would be 0.5*0.5*0.5=0.125 or 12.5 %



Take for example, flipping a coin. Theoretically, if I flip it, there is a 50% chance that I flip a head and a a 50% chance that I flip a tail. That would lead us to believe that out of 100 flips, there should theoretically be 50 heads and 50 tails. But if you actually try this out, this may not be the case. What you actually get, say 46 heads and 54 tails, is the experimental probability. Thus, experimental probability differs from theoretical probability by the actual results. Where theoretical probability cannot change, experimental probability can.


50/50 50/50? This is equal to 1 which would imply the probability of flipping a head is certain. Obviously not correct as the probability of flipping a head in a fair dice is 1/2 or 0.5


These would be independent events; therefore, we can multiply the probabilities of each of the two events. Probability of flipping a head: 1/2 Probability of rolling an odd number with a single die: 1/6 Required probability : 1/2 x 1/6 = 1/12


You take the probability of each event and multiply them. In the case of the given example, your odds or flipping a head and rolling a 5 would be 1/2 * 1/6, which equals 1/12.


Multiply together the probability that each event would have of occurring by itself. For example, the probability of rolling a "3" on a single die is 1/6 ,because there are 6 different possibilities. And the probability of flipping a "heads" on a coin is 1/2 , because there are two possibilities. Then the probability of rolling a "3" AND flipping a "heads" is ; 1/6 x 1/2 = 1/12 .


well it depends on what you are tossing, if its a coin then no. it can be heads too. it would have to be a great coincidence for it to be all tails, but thats why the word probability comes in meaning that there is more than one outcome


There are eight possible outcomes: HHH, HHT, HTT, HTH, TTT, TTH, THH, THT. Of these, 3 contain two tails: HTT, TTH, and THT and the probability of getting two tails is 3/8. If the question were 'getting at least two tails' then TTT would need to be included for a probability of 4/8 or 0.5.


Your question is very vague but if we assume "rolling a 5" is rolling a five on a six sided dice then the probability of that would be 1/6 since there are 6 sides and 5 is just 1 side. Again your question is very vague but if we assume "getting tails" means getting heads or tails on a 2 sided coin then the probability of that would be 1/2 since there are 2 sides and tails is just 1 side.


I'm assuming you are asking what is the probability (P) of flipping a quarter.This answer really depends upon how many times up are going to flip it.If you are flipping it once, you have a 50% chance that it will land on heads and a 50% chance that it will land on tails. Either way the sum of your probabilities will add up to 1, meaning that there is a 100% chance that something will occur (see probability rules).EX: Let H= heads and let T=tails∑P= P(H)+P(T)=0.5+0.5=1However, let's say you were going to flip a coin 3 times and were wanting to know what the probability of getting at least 1 tail was. You would approach the problem this way:P( at least 1 tail)=?Next, you want to find the compliment (the opposite of what you are starting with). So the opposite of getting one tail is getting no tails. This is the same as getting all heads.P(no tails)=P(all heads)P( all heads)= P(H)3 Heads is cubed because you are flipping the coin 3= P(0.5)3 times and want all the outcomes to be heads.= 1/8By knowing that the outcome plus its compliment add up to equal 1 you get:P( all heads) + P( at least 1 tail)=1P( at least 1 tail) = 1- P( all heads)P( at least 1 tail) = 1- 1/8P( at least 1 tail) = 7/8So the probability of flipping a coin 3 times and getting a least 1 tail is 7/8. In other words, it's very likely that it will land on tails one of those three times.


There are eight possible results when flipping three coins (eliminating the highly unlikely scenario of one or more coins landing on their edge): Dime - Heads / Nickel - Heads / Penny - Heads Dime - Heads / Nickel - Heads / Penny - Tails Dime - Heads / Nickel - Tails / Penny - Heads Dime - Heads / Nickel - Tails / Penny - Tails Dime - Tails / Nickel - Heads / Penny - Heads Dime - Tails / Nickel - Heads / Penny - Tails Dime - Tails / Nickel - Tails / Penny - Heads Dime - Tails / Nickel - Tails / Penny - Tails


Anyone can flip a coin four times so I say 100 percent probability. On the other maybe you should ask the odds of the results from four flips.


The probability of flipping a heads is 1/2 and the probability of rolling a 6 is 1/6. By the laws of probability it would be logical to multiply them together, (1/2)(1/6) thus the answer being 1/12 with is roughly eight percent.


The flip of a fair coin is 0.5 heads and tails, so you want the probability of head & head. This probability of garlic, garlic two consecutive tosses is 0.5 * 0.5 = 0.25.


This is a probability question. Probabilities are calculated with this simple equation: Chances of Success / [Chances of Success + Chances of Failure (or Total Chances)] If I flip a coin, there is one chance that it will land on heads and one chance it will land on tails. If success = landing on heads, then: Chances of Success = 1 Chances of Failure = 1 Total Chances = 2 Thus the probability that a coin will land on heads on one flip is 1/2 = .5 = 50 percent. (Note that probability can never be higher than 100 percent. If you get greater than 100 you did the problem incorrectly) Your question is unclear whether you mean the probability that a coin will land on head on any of 8 flips or all of 8 flips. To calculate either you could write out all the possible outcomes of the flips (for example: heads-heads-tails-tails-heads-tails-heads-heads) but that would take forvever. Luckily, because the outcome of one coin flip does not affect the next flip you can calculate the total probability my multiplying the probabilities of each individual outcome. For example: Probability That All 8 Flips Are Heads = Prob. Flip 1 is Heads * Prob. Flip 2 is Heads * Prob. Flip 3 is Heads...and so on Since we know that the probability of getting heads on any one flips is .5: Probability That All 8 Flips Are Heads = .5 * .5 * .5 * .5 * .5 * .5 * .5 * .5 (or .58) Probability That All 8 Flips Are Heads = .00391 or .391 percent. The probability that you will flip a heads on any of flips is similar, but instead of thinking about what is the possiblity of success, it is easier to approach it in another way. The is only one case where you will not a heads on any coin toss. That is if every outcome was tails. The probability of that occurring is the same as the probability of getting a heads on every toss because the probability of getting a heads or tails on any one toss is 50 percent. (If this does not make sense redo the problem above with tails instead of heads and see if your answer changes.) However this is the probability of FAILURE not success. This is where another probability formula comes into play: Probability of Success + Probability of Failure = 1 We know the probability of failure in this case is .00391 so: Probability of Success + .00391 = 1 Probability of Success = .9961 or 99.61 percent. Therefore, the probability of flipping a heads at least once during 8 coin flips is 99.61 percent. The probability of flipping a heads every time during 8 coin flips is .391 percent.


Every time you flip a coin it has a 50% probability that it will land on either heads or tails. You would expect to get heads about half the time and tails about half the time. What actually happens could be different from what is expected. You could get heads every time, or tails every time. Or you could get tails 75% of the time and heads 25% of the time. however, your results appear to be what you would expect, approximately 50% heads and 50% tails. You got 16 heads and 14 tails. Your percentage of heads is 16/30 x 100= 53.33... %. Your percentage of tails is 14/30 x 100 = 46.66... %.


Expirimental probability is when you use an expiriment to find the probability of a certain predicament. For example: Let's say you flip a coin 10 times. Before you flip you guess that you flip 5 heads and 5 tails or 1/2 heads and 1/2 tails. You guess this because one side is heads and the other side is tails so its an even risk. This is theoretical probability. When you actually do flip the coins you get, lets say, 8 heads and 2 tails. This would make your expirimental probability 4/5 heads and 1/5 tails. That is because you based the evidence on an expiriment rather than a guess. The longer the expiriment is, the more accurate your evidence will be.


This is one of those cases where it is probably easier to think what is the probability of not doing it, then subtracting that from 1 to get the probability of doing it. To not get at least one head and one tail, you would have to get all heads or all tails. To get all heads, the probability is (1/2)5. To get all tails is the same probability; so double it to get the probability of either of those. 2(1/2)5=1/16. Subtract the 1/16 from 1 to get 15/16. Answer: 15/16


1899 would make it a Barber quarter, so the mint mark is located on the reverse (tails) side, just below the eagle's tail feathers.


the probability would be 50 to 50 chancesThere's generally a 50% chance it will come up tails, but some coins have heavier designs on one side, so these may be more biased to a head or a tail over the term.If it is a fair coin, then 0.5



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