That varied from country to country. Please bear in mind that in many countries nobody had a vote till late in the 1800s ...
Britain - 1858
Germany (for the Reichstag) - 1871 (but somewhat earlier in some German states)
THERE has NEVER been a religious test to vote. In the colonies the voter was male, 21, and owned land. Slaves and women couldn't vote. Slaves got the right in the 15th amendment and women with the 19th amendment. This country was founded on the freedom of religion and the government is secular in nature. It is very unnerving that this question has been asked.
A-the right to vote
The right to vote.
The right to vote, buy wagons, have jobs, own buissnesses etc.
Jews can vote for any political party they choose. The Jews of the world represent countless different ideas and political parties. As of 2010, the majority of Jews in the United States are registered as Democrats.
White men who owned property, excluding Catholics and Jews.
First answer: Because the third reich was a Facist regime, which was a form of Totalitarian dictatorship that does not allow voting.Second answer: It was far worse for Jews than not being allowed to vote!!! The Nazis did not allow Jews to live. This was not a mere civil rights issue, but genocide & extermination of every Jewish person that could be found!
the right to vote The right to vote
the right to vote The right to vote
does people living overseas have the right to vote
the right to vote The right to vote
they always had the right to vote
one group of people were women or suffragettes. they fought for women's rights like the right to vote and things like that.