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first answer: because it was taken away from 'Germany at the end of WW1. The Treaty of Versailles I think..It's people speak German, and it was an easy target for Hitler to take it in his Pre-WW11 expansion demands

second more correct answer: The Sudetenland was actually not a part of Germany during the First World War, it was a part of Austria-Hungary. Hitler created a fake crisis over the Sudetenland as a means to attack & seize the whole of Czechoslovakia in 1938. That was his original plan. His plan was partially foiled by the Munich Agreement. In that agreement, the British & French leaders agreed to hand the Sudetenland over to Germany without a fight, although the Czech's were willing to fight. This action has become infamous in European history as the part of the "appeasement" of Hitler. Hitler was seen as the victor in this crisis. The actual reality Behind the Scenes is as such: The Munich Agreement of 30 September 1938 infuriated Hitler because he actually desired to start an armed conflict with Czechoslovakia to seize the entire country, beyond the Sudetenland. From his point of view, he won only a small portion of Czechoslovakia. Secretly Hitler's Generals were amazed & happy that war had been avoided. Hitler still had his eyes on the remainder of Czechoslovakia, and he correctly reasoned that the French & British would not risk war to interfere with Hitler's seizure of that nation. So in March 1939, the German Army seized the remainder of Czechoslovakia. So again Hitler amazed his Generals with the relatively painless conquest. However for the French & British, this was the "last straw" that ended the appeasement, and they secretly determined to resist further German aggressions, setting the stage for world war when Germany attacked Poland (allied to France & Britain).

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9y ago
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16y ago

It was never "conquered", the Allies used appeasement in 1938 and let Hitler take Sudetenland and made him sign a treaty saying he would not take any more land. Of course it did not work.

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14y ago

Hitler led Germany invaded the Czechoslavakian Sudetenland in 1939.

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11y ago

Nazi Germany annexed with the Sudetenland on October 21st 1938. This took place 8 1/2 months after Nazi Germany annex with Austria.

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10y ago

On March 7, 1936.

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10y ago

in 1938.

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Q: When did Germany take over the Sudetenland?
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Related questions

What is the word for letting Germany take over the Sudetenland?

The word is "appeasement."


Did Chamberlain convince the Czech government to give over the Sudetenland?

no. Chamberlain and others talked with Germany and agreed that Germany would take the Sudetenland. No one talked to the Czechs.


When did Germany take Sudetenland?

In 1938.


How was Germany appeased over by Sudetenland?

Germany was appeased over by Sudetenland because Hitler believed that it should be part of Germany since they spoke German and they were Germans.


With what appeasement was sudetenland turned over to germany?

neutrality act


Before invading Poland what two other countries did Germany take over?

Sudetenland/Rests of Czech Republic and Austria


What montaninous region in czecholovakia did Hitler take back for Germany in 1939?

The Sudetenland.


Munich Agreement (1938)?

Turned Czechoslovakia, at the time called Sudetenland, over to Germany.


How did the World War 2 begin in England and Germany?

Germany invaded Poland after signing a non aggressive pact with England. Germany had already annexed Austria and the Sudetenland, but it was Poland that told England that Germany wanted to take over Europe


How does Sudetenland relate to World War 2?

It was one of the regions taken over by Germany leading to WW2.


Why did Germany invade Czechoslovakia before the war?

In the summer of 1938, Germany and Czechoslovakia began to quarrel over the disputed border area of the Sudetenland.


When did Germany over take Sudetenland?

'Austria was imperialized by the United States of America after Germany imperialized Austria in 1958 therefore making any one born in Austria a U.S. Citizen