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Why did Franklin Roosevelt decide to invade morocco and Algeria in north Africa?
It had the primary objective of slowing Nazi Germany's advance through Africa as well as being an amphibious assault where defenses were not yet well-developed (unlike Fortress Europe).
When did US President Franklin D. Roosevelt decide to invade the Philippines in World War 2?
In July of 1944 US President Franklin D. Roosevelt met with his senior commanders in Hawaii to decide whether to invade the Philippines or Taiwan. The senior US Navy commanders believed that an invasion of Taiwan would aid the "island hopping" Pacific campaign and the US Air Force could keep Japanese forces in the Philippines isolated. The US Army believed that invading the Philippines was a better way to take control of US military operations in East Asia. President Roosevelt decided that the US had better prospects if the Philippines were retaken. The Japanese had captured the Philippines in 1962.
What are the differences between the Roosevelt corollary and the Monroe doctrine?
Monroe Doctrine warns Europe not to invade the American continents, not american colonies, while the Roosevelt Corollary warns Europe not to invade countries south of the U.S. in the Western Hemisphere.
Why did the Moroccan army decide to invade the Songhai Empire?
The dominant reason for Morocco's invasion of the Songhai Empire was to dominate the Trans-Saharan Salt-for-Gold Trade. The Songhai Empire was wealthy with gold, and this attracted the Moroccans. While the Songhai military was very skilled, it was no modernized, allowing Moroccan armies using firearms to overrun the empire in 1591.It is worth noting that there was never a motive of conversion since both Morocco and the Songhai Empire were Sunni Islamic States and that the Songhai had been largely peaceful towards the Moroccans prior to the invasion.
Who was Thedore Roosevelt and what did he do during the Spanish American war?
Colonel Theodore Roosevelt, Jr., led the 1st US Volunteer Cavalry Regiment (The Rough Riders). The regiment was among the units to invade Cuba and noted for their attack on Spanish defenders at the Battle of San Juan Hill. Col. Roosevelt was shortly after elected the 26th Constitutional President of the United States.
Roosevelt decided to invade morocco and Algeria in order to?
help the British troops fight the Germans in Egypt
Why did Franklin Roosevelt decide to invade morocco and Algeria in north Africa?
It had the primary objective of slowing Nazi Germany's advance through Africa as well as being an amphibious assault where defenses were not yet well-developed (unlike Fortress Europe).
What two reasons president Roosevelt decide to invade north Africa?
for the weed
When did Morocco invade Songhai?
They never did....
When did US President Franklin D. Roosevelt decide to invade the Philippines in World War 2?
In July of 1944 US President Franklin D. Roosevelt met with his senior commanders in Hawaii to decide whether to invade the Philippines or Taiwan. The senior US Navy commanders believed that an invasion of Taiwan would aid the "island hopping" Pacific campaign and the US Air Force could keep Japanese forces in the Philippines isolated. The US Army believed that invading the Philippines was a better way to take control of US military operations in East Asia. President Roosevelt decided that the US had better prospects if the Philippines were retaken. The Japanese had captured the Philippines in 1962.
Are life sucking monsters going to invade the earth in 2012?
its only if they decide to lol
Where did American military planners decide to invade so b29s could be refueled?
Iwo Jima
Did General Mark Clark get permission to invade Algeria from the Vichy government?
No, General Clark secretly entered Algeria by an American submarine which embarked him on 20/10/1942 and picked him up on 22/10/1942. He came to Algeria to plan for the embarkation the Americans did not tell the French about the embarkation because the Americans feared that French may have refused.
What are the differences between the Roosevelt corollary and the Monroe doctrine?
Monroe Doctrine warns Europe not to invade the American continents, not american colonies, while the Roosevelt Corollary warns Europe not to invade countries south of the U.S. in the Western Hemisphere.
Does Spanish invade Muslims?
The question makes no sense. Muslims are people; they cannot be invaded save for by microorganisms. If you mean to ask: "Do Spaniards invade Muslim lands?" then you have to define what a Muslim land is. Moroccans claim that the Spanish cities of Ceuta and Melilla are part of the territorial integrity of Morocco. Spain responds that it has controlled both of those cities since 1497, before the creation of the Alouite Dynasty in Morocco (in the 1600s) and before even the annexation of Navarre (in 1515). As a result, they are historically Spanish lands, not Moroccan lands. (Whether Moroccan lands are Muslim lands is itself a more involved question of how you "Islamify" a piece of land, but let's avoid that for the moment.) Historically, Spain had colonies in Morocco (north Morocco, ruled from Tetouan, and south Morocco, ruled from Ifni) and controlled Western Sahara (called Rio de Oro at that time). Both of these areas have majority-Muslim populations. Spain handed over control of north Morocco and most of South Morocco in 1956 to Morocco at France's request. Spain gave up Ifni itself after the Ifni War with Morocco and international pressure in 1969. Spain gave Rio de Oro independence in 1975 after which it was promptly annexed by Morocco in the "Green March".
Why did the Moroccan army decide to invade the Songhai Empire?
The dominant reason for Morocco's invasion of the Songhai Empire was to dominate the Trans-Saharan Salt-for-Gold Trade. The Songhai Empire was wealthy with gold, and this attracted the Moroccans. While the Songhai military was very skilled, it was no modernized, allowing Moroccan armies using firearms to overrun the empire in 1591.It is worth noting that there was never a motive of conversion since both Morocco and the Songhai Empire were Sunni Islamic States and that the Songhai had been largely peaceful towards the Moroccans prior to the invasion.
Do Spaniards invade Muslim lands?
You have to define what a Muslim land is. Moroccans claim that the Spanish cities of Ceuta and Melilla are part of the territorial integrity of Morocco. Spain responds that it has controlled both of those cities since 1497, before the creation of the Alouite Dynasty in Morocco (in the 1600s) and before even the annexation of Navarre (in 1515). As a result, they are historically Spanish lands, not Moroccan lands. (Whether Moroccan lands are Muslim lands is itself a more involved question of how you "Islamify" a piece of land, but let's avoid that for the moment.) Historically, Spain had colonies in Morocco (north Morocco, ruled from Tetouan, and south Morocco, ruled from Ifni) and controlled Western Sahara (called Rio de Oro at that time). Both of these areas have majority-Muslim populations. Spain handed over control of north Morocco and most of South Morocco in 1956 to Morocco at France's request. Spain gave up Ifni itself after the Ifni War with Morocco and international pressure in 1969. Spain gave Rio de Oro independence in 1975 after which it was promptly annexed by Morocco in the "Green March".
