Venice did because all the trade routes went right through it. I don't know about Portugal.
Portugal started shipping spices from Asia.
The Dutch
After the seizure of Ambon in the Moloccas in 1605 and Banda Island in 1623, the Dutch secured the trade monopoly of the Spice Islands. A policy of the ruthless exploitation by 'divide and rule' tactics was carried out -
portugal found a water route to asia fmot&Ig @AmerisLove
The moors vasco de gama discovered the spice after traveling to India
Italy lost a monopoly
Portugal started shipping spices from Asia.
In 1300 Italy was not yet a state , but a myriad of independent feudal seignories, city states, maritime republics, the States of the Church and states subject to foreign monarchies. Therefore Italy as a whole had no monopoly. The Maritime Republics of Genoa, Venice, Pisa had the monopoly of the maritime routes to the Mediterranean Eastern States, that means they had also the monopoly of the spice trade.
Italy lost a monopoly
The Dutch
There was no water route to India. Italy have a monopoly on the spice trade because they had the only water route to India
Portugal
After the seizure of Ambon in the Moloccas in 1605 and Banda Island in 1623, the Dutch secured the trade monopoly of the Spice Islands. A policy of the ruthless exploitation by 'divide and rule' tactics was carried out -
It depends on the nation involved. In Spain and Portugal, is was mostly the Government. In the Dutch Republic and Britain it was their independent trading companies who had more or less - and often with a charter from their Government - a monopoly for the spice trade. And let's certainly not forget the benefits to local rulers in the East, who had a huge market opening to them.
Magellan went to open the "Spice route" without damaging relations with Portugal.
portugal found a water route to asia fmot&Ig @AmerisLove
Arabs