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The question assumes that there was little advance in science in medieval Europe. I believe the reverse is true; there was quite a lot of scientific advancement.

I am attaching two links below. One is to an article on Medieval Technology, and the other to an article on Renaissance Technology. Both of these articles deal with the advances of their respective times, whether by invention or by adoption of technology invented elsewhere. The Renaissance lasted about 250 years, and the Middle Ages about 1000, so if they had advances at the same rate, the Middle Ages should have produced about four times as many of the same quality. The articles are not perfect; the medieval invention of the chimney is not mentioned. But they are representative.

I will invite anyone interested to compare the medieval inventions with those of the Renaissance. Since the two times overlap to some extent, some inventions appears in the lists of both ages, and they should be counted for both. We should ask, what is the relative quality and quantity of medieval inventions versus those of the Renaissance?

My own take on this is that the Middle Ages was easily the equal to the Renaissance in scientific advancement, and quite probably superior to it, but you can make up your own mind.

To simplify things, I made a list of the technologies in the articles and put them into the related question below.

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13y ago
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14y ago

Well because the kings were afraid that if people made some new invention it could somehow overthrow them, so they made almost all scientific progress a sin and tortured all the inventors and scientist, when people wised up they made much more progress at a rapid new rate with the new freedom they had, letting us make up for the past 1000 years in five hundred so without the dark ages we would have much less technology.

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16y ago

Science was stifled by the church. The church saw scientific discoveries as a threat and/or as witchcraft.

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12y ago

Because it didn't exist

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Q: Why did science make little progress in the Middle Ages?
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