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I can't answer why he took the action he did. I will say that he did not "steal it". If the lending agreement was in default the vehicle is subject to being repossessed and it is the legal right of the lien holder to do so. A lending agreement is considered defaulted if even one of the terms is not adhered to; meaning even when a payment is late the lender/lien holder can take whatever action necessary to secure their interest in the collateral/property.

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โˆ™ 2006-09-09 18:59:04
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Q: Why would a father take a daughter's car after 3 years of payments even if she was 2 payments behind but had an agreement with the bank and all he had to do was agree but instead he stole the car?
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Related questions

What happened if you were behind on payments and the lender offered to refinance and lower the payments and said you were approved and then repossessed the car?

Generally you would have to sign paper work if the bank had approved a refinance agreement . In that case you could take legal action . They could however reposses the vehical if you fell behind again on your payments after sighing the agreement. Guess what......... banks and lenders LIE !!!!! If it is not in writing then there is no agreement so you don't have any recourse. Unfortunately you learned the hard way.


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As little as 1. Depends on the lender and the agreement you signed. Read the loan agreement. My advice. Call the lender and talk about this. Work something out! You do not want your car repossed.


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