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This is an odd question in more than one way. First, 'owning up' is a very inappropriate way to express the situation. One owns up to an error or possibly a shortcoming. How does that fit with being Jewish? It is also unusual that one would reach the point of marrying someone without this information being made known in one way or another. Usually there is some knowledge of other family members, or of one's background and upbringing.

Given that it happened, whether or not the marriage is valid would depend on the reaction of your spouse, and his/her desire to consider this a reason to end the marriage. Any person who would think this wasn't worth marrying in the first place. If it is of little or no concern to your spouse, then it is a non-question. You are married and you should just get on with it.

Otherwise, there would probably have to be some legal action which may or may not be won. The question would be whether this lack of forthrightness can be interpreted as an impediment to making a legal and binding contract. Intent might come into the argument. Is it something that never came up, or was there a specific intent and action to conceal it? Were you intentionally deceitful in the process of applying for and following through on the marriage? That would probably be sufficient to nullify the contract. It is also not obvious at face value, but there may be differences depending on whether you are interested in the validity of the marriage from the point of view of civil law or religious law.

If there is still a question, you should seek legal advice. An attorney can give you a consultation and you should not fear being exposed-- or you will have your own lawsuit to file.

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Q: Would your marriage be valid if you did not own up to being Jewish and married in C of E?
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