Only white men who owned land could vote
unanmious
Pennsylvaina simply because it had the most population and everyone in the colonies were patriots!
There were a limited number of Northern American states where blacks were legally allowed to vote. Blacks residing in the free colonies including Maryland, Delaware, New York and New Hampshire were entitled to privileges of a citizen including voting.
Salves could not vote for many years after slavery was abolished.
They didn't let woman, slaves, strangers or insane people vote. That'S the difference from nowadays. So, no.
The colonies met the needs for government by going to town meetings to vote but only men could vote.
Property
They couldn't vote in any colonies. They didnt have dreedom to vote and neither did women. The only people who could vote where whitemen. Nothing else.
White men property owners
Only white males are able to vote because they are the only citizens in the colonies.Because only citizens are able to vote.
No. Women didn’t have the right to vote until 1920. This was well past the colonial period.
the women's did not have full rights because they could not vote
A greater percentage of men could vote in the colonies than could vote in England -Plato
A greater percentage of men could vote in the colonies than could vote in England -Plato
Mainly rich planters and lawyers, business owners. They were the only ones who could vote. Men who didn't own land couldn't vote, women couldn't vote, and slaves couldn't vote.
In the English colonies, white, male property owners who were 21 and older could vote. These rules excluded most of the population of the new colonies. The jurists believed that by the time a man owned land, he had a vested interest in the community and should be able to voice his opinion by voting. The believed that poor people could be swayed by the wealthy to vote a certain way.
THe hopless lozzas held the right to vote in the southern colonies