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Because he knew that the wrongs committed against the USA's desire to be a free country were not opposed by the majority of the British people but by the British monarchy under George III. He had no grudge against ordinary British people, many of whom had close relatives who had emigrated to the United States, and meant them no harm- he wanted to make a distinction between the British people and the British establishment.

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6y ago
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14y ago

It was easier to target a single figure, King George, rather than the entire Parliament.

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9y ago

The king is a dictator who abuses his people

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Q: Why does Thomas Jefferson direct his attack towards king george instead of against parliament?
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