I'm not sure that I have the right understanding for the question but it seems to fit. If you are talking about the r^2 value, correlation of a line of best fit, then it should not be over 1.
30 percent off 103 dollars = $72.130% off of $103= 30% discount applied to $103= $103 - (30% * $103)= $103 - (0.30 * $103)= $103 - 30.9= $72.1
1 x 103, 103 x 1 = 103
They are: 1*103 = 103
103 is a prime number because its only factors are one and itself.103 is a prime number
Hello this is Christian Cameron can you help me
Auto correlation is the correlation of one signal with itself. Cross correlation is the correlation of one signal with a different signal.
positive correlation-negative correlation and no correlation
No. The strongest correlation coefficient is +1 (positive correlation) and -1 (negative correlation).
The correlation can be anything between +1 (strong positive correlation), passing through zero (no correlation), to -1 (strong negative correlation).
If measurements are taken for two (or more) variable for a sample , then the correlation between the variables are the sample correlation. If the sample is representative then the sample correlation will be a good estimate of the true population correlation.
No.
Indentation rhymes with correlation
Evidence that there is no correlation.
No, The correlation can not be over 1. An example of a strong correlation would be .99
No. The units of the two variables in a correlation will not change the value of the correlation coefficient.
A correlation coefficient is a statistic that measures the strength and direction of a relationship between two variables. It ranges from -1 to 1, with 1 indicating a perfect positive relationship, -1 indicating a perfect negative relationship, and 0 indicating no relationship between the variables.
They can be positive correlation, negative correlation or no correlation depending on 'line of best fit'