It is 0.8217
50% chance
The probability of rolling a 6 is 1/6. The probability of rolling 10 times a 6 is (1/6)10 or 1.654X10-8.
The probability of rolling a 3 with a standard die is 1 in 6. The probability of doing that two times in a row is 1 in 6 squared, or 1 in 36.
15
The probability of rolling a 5, based on the information given, is 80/375 or 16/75. Your problem describes a relative frequency approximation of probability.
there is 0% probability, unless you are some super nerd, and calculate the chance of it splitting the six and you getting two threes in one roll :p
25/36
50% chance
The probability of rolling a 6 is 1/6. The probability of rolling 10 times a 6 is (1/6)10 or 1.654X10-8.
The probability of rolling a 3 with a standard die is 1 in 6. The probability of doing that two times in a row is 1 in 6 squared, or 1 in 36.
15
The probability of rolling a 5, based on the information given, is 80/375 or 16/75. Your problem describes a relative frequency approximation of probability.
The probability of rolling a six is 1 out of 6, or 1/6. Now, perhaps your question is: If I roll a die 180 times, what is the probability of rolling a six at least once. This is the same as rolling a die 180 times and never once rolling a six. The probability is (5/6)180 which is 5.59 x 10-15.
When a number cube is rolled twice, there are 36 possible outcomes. (1,1),(1,2),....(6,6). (3,3) occurs only once. Therefore, the probability of rolling a 3 both times is 1/36.
The probability that 14 is rolled at least once is 1 - 5.5*10-32 which, for all intents and purposes, can be treated as 1.
It is 0.1962
the chances of rolling doubles once is 1 in 6; 3 times in a row it is 1 in 216. It does not make any difference after how many times you rolled the dice before.