6 1/8:
= [6 + (1 ÷ 8)] x 100%
= [6 + 0.125] x 100%
= 6.125 x 100%
= 612.5%
what is the percent of 2 over 6
1/6 is equal to 2*1/2*31/6 is not equal to 2/6----------------------------------
6 over 6 is equal to one.
1/6 expressed as a percent is 16.666% . . . repeating.
Expressed as a percentage, 1/6 x 100 = 16.6 recurring (that is, 16.6666...) percent.
66.7% because 4/6 is equal to .667 and you multiply that to get 66.7 percent.
No because 17/6 is equal to 2 and 5/6
6 over 12 is equal to 1/2 or 0.5
no 6/12 is 6 times larger than 1/12 though 6/12 is equal to 1/2
Just under 17% i.e. 16 and two-thirds per cent 16.666667
yes it dose equal 1 whole
Any fraction, such as 1/6, can be converted to a percent by multiplying the fraction by 100. 100(1/6) = 16 and 2/3 percent.
100% is equal to 1 so 6% is .06
Find the common denominator, which is 6 in this case.6 goes into 6 = 16 goes into 42 = 7Therefore 1 over 7 is equal to 6 over 42
6/36 is equal to 1/6 and 1/6 is .16 but the six has a vinculum over it
No, it is not.
5/6 = 0.833333, and to express that as a percentage, you multiply by 100, giving 83.33333 percent (rounded to 83.3 percent).
1 over 6 is the same as one divided by six which is 0.1666
100 percent of any number is equal to the number itself. Therefore, 100 percent of 6 is equal to 6.
The sum of 1/6 and 1/4 is 5/12.
5 and 1/6 = 31/6 or 5.167
Expressed as a percentage, six twenty-fifths is equal to 6/25 x 100 = 24 percent.
3/6 is equal to 1/2 because they both equal 50% or .5.
No - expressed as a decimal, 4/9 is equal to 0.4 recurring (that is, 0.44444...) while 1/6 is equal to 0.16 recurring (that is, 0.16666...)
The answer of the problem what is 1/4+5/6 equal 1 1/12