Not if the second rational number is 0: in that case the quotient is not defined. Otherwise the answer is yes.
yes
Yes, always. That is the definition of a rational number.
Yes, as long as the two nonzero numbers are themselves rational. (Since a rational number is any number that can be expressed as the quotient of two rational numbers, or any number that can be written as a fraction using only rational numbers.) If one of the nonzero numbers is not rational, the quotient will most likely be irrational.
Because that is how a rational number is defined!
Because that is how a rational number is defined!
Yes, it is.
Yes.
yes say you have 5 divided by 2 you get 2.5 or even 5 divided by 7 you get 0.714257142857 which is still rational.
Yes, that is how a rational number is defined.
Yes, by definition.
I had this name question for homework :| no
In general, no. It is possible though. (2pi)/pi is rational. pi2/pi is irrational. The ratio of two rationals numbers is always rational and the ratio of a rational and an irrational is always irrational.