It is possible. It is certain with a double headed coin. With a fair coin the event has a probability of 1 in 1048576 or approximately 1 in a million.

The probability of 10 heads in a row is (0.5)10 = 0.000977 = 0.0977% .It makes no difference what has come before or what comes after.

Theoretical probability = 0.5 Experimental probability = 20% more = 0.6 In 50 tosses, that would imply 30 heads.

None, since that would imply that in 18 cases the coin did not show heads or tails!

Yes. The probability of this occurring is 0.520 = 0.00000095367 or 1 in 1,048,576 thus you are more likely to do this than win the lottery

The result of tossing the coin would not affect which number was selected. So we say that these two events are independent. We can therefore assess the probability of each of them separately and then multiply the two probabilities together for a final result. Probability of getting tails: 1/2 (since there is one way of getting heads out of two possibilities) Probability of getting zero: 1/10 (since there is one way of getting zero out of ten possibilities) Overall probability: 1/2 x 1/20 = 1/20

20!/(18!*2!) * (1/2)^20 = 190/1048576 = 0.000181198... So less than 1 in 5000.

30 times because it landed on heads 20 times, but he flipped the coin 50 times. 20+30=50.

Experimental probability:experimental probability is when you actually experiment to see the results of a real life problemExample:There is a coin and you decide to toss it to see what were the results. Say you toss it 10 times but it lads on tails only 3 times but head on 7 times. So the experimental probability for tails is 3/10 and for heads it is 7/10.That is what experimental probability is.Mathematically:number of favorable trialstotal number of trialsTheoretical probability:theoretical probability is when you decide what will probably happen with the information given about the topicExample:You have a bag full of blocks. There are 3 red, 6 yellow, 1 pink, and 10 blue. The theoretical probability is this:(P)red = 3/20 (P)yelllow = 6/20 (P) pink = 1/20 (P)blue = 10/20Mathematically:number of favorable outcomesnumber of possible outcomes

There is a 1/16 probability that 5 tosses end with the same result - 1/32 that they are all tails. In this kind of example, most statisticians would not reject the hypothesis of a fair coin unless the probability was less than 5% or 1/20. The null hypothesis is that the coin is a fair coin. If the alternative hypothesis is that something is wrong with the coin, the probability of a result such as the one observed (and its mirror image) is 6.25%. So you would not reject the null hypothesis at the 5% level. However, if your alternative is that the coin favours tails, the probability of as extreme an outcome is 0.03125 or 3.125% and you would reject the null hypothesis. This is a marginal case at the 5% level and you may wish to toss the coin a few more times to reduce the probability of the outcome occurring purely by chance.

The probability is 20/50 = 0.4

They are just used to make equations and make more things like more equations and estimates!Theoretical Probability: P(event) the ratio of the number of favorable outcomes to the number of possible outcomes, written as a ratio.example: number of favorable outcomes over number of possible outcomesAmelynn is hungry, so she gets out a bowl and puts in 2 red jelly beans, 3 blue jelly beans, 12 pink jelly beans, and 3 yellow jelly beans. Amelynn likes the pink ones the best. What is the theoretical possibility of her getting a pink jelly bean?Answer: 12 over 20. (or 3 over 5 [simplest form])Explanation: Amelynn put 20 jelly beans in the bowl. She wants the pink ones, andthere are 12 pink jelly beans, which are the favorable outcomes. There are 20 jelly beans, and these are the possible outcomes. This means that it is 12 over 20. You might have to put this in simplest form as well. also this is 60% total.******************************************************************************************Experimental Probability: The number of times the outcome occurs compared to the total number of trials.example: number of favorable outcomes over total number of trials.Amelynn is flipping a coin. She finished the task one time, then did it again. Here are her results: heads: three times and tails: seven times. What is the experimental probability of the coin landing on heads?Answer: 3/10Explanation: Amelynn flipped the coin a total of 10 times, getting heads 3 times. Therefore, the answer is: 3/10 or 30%Theoretical probability ... a coin has 2 sides so the theoretical probability of flipping a coin and getting heads is 1/2.Experimental probability... flip a coin 10 time and you get 7 heads so the experimental probability of getting heads is 7/10

A fair coin would be expected to land on heads 10 times on average.

Probability of a spinner of 20 landing on 5 is 1/20.

There is a fifty percent chance of the coin landing on "heads" each time it is flipped.However, flipping a coin 20 times virtually guarantees that it will land on "heads" at least once in that twenty times. (99.9999046325684 percent chance)You can see this by considering two coin flips. Here are the possibilities:Heads, heads.Heads, tails.Tails, tails.Tails, heads.You will note in the tossing of the coin twice that while each flip is fifty/fifty, that for the two flip series, there are three ways that it has heads come up at least once, and only one way in which heads does not come up.In other words, while it is a fifty percent chance for heads each time, it is a seventy five percent chance of seeing it be heads once if you are flipping twice.If you wish to know the odds of it not being heads in a twenty time flip, you would multiply .5 times .5 times .5...twenty times total. Or .5 to the twentieth power.That works out to a 99.9999046325684 percent chance of it coming up heads at least once in the twenty times of it being flipped.

No, a probability must needs be a number between 0 and 1.20% might be a probability, though - since that is equivalent to 0.2.

If N is odd, the probability is 0. If N is even, suppose N=2M then the probability is 2MCM*(1/2)2M which approaches 0 as N (or M) increases. For N = 10, Prob = 0.1762 For N = 20, Prob = 0.1254 For N = 30, Prob = 0.1026 For N = 80, Prob = 0.0630

Yes but the probability for that is 1/3,656,158,440,062,976. In other words, it's probably not going to happen

The experimental probability of a number cube that lands on 5 four times in a twenty toss trial is Pexp(5) = 4/20 = 1/5 = 0.20 = 20%

The probability is 8/20.

5 times.When tossing 2 pennies there are 4 equiprobable outcomes or events with 1/4 ofprobability for each to happen:P(H,H) = 1/4P(H,T) = 1/4P(T,H) = 1/4P(T,T) = 1/4So if you toss 2 pennies 20 times, the "expected" number of times that 2 heads (H,H)will come up is 1/4 of the 20 times, that is 5 times.

The probability of picking a distinct set of 3 numbers from 20 is1/[20!/(3!)(17!)]= 1/1140The probability of only picking 3 from 20 is1/20

5%. There are ten numbers, and two coin choices, therefore 20 possibilities. Divide 100 by 20. You get 5. There you go, 5%. Make that into a fraction, and you have 1/20 (5/100).

In the sample space [1,20], there are 8 prime numbers, [2,3,5,7,11,13,17,19]. The probability, then, of randomly choosing a prime number in the sample space [1,20] is (8 in 20), or (2 in 5), or 0.4. The probability of choosing two of them is (8 in 20) times (7 in 19) which is (56 in 1064) or (7 in 133) or about 0.05263.

Toss a coin 20 times and see what happens.It is POSSIBLE to always get 10 heads and 10 tails...but it is not very PROBABLE.

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