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(inelastic portion is when MR = negative figure)

Yes , because the optimum point is when MR equals to MC

and there is no hell a way when MC is negative.

Other than this, when the price is at the upper proportion of monopoly demand curve, the price is always higher and the monopoly firm will earn supernormal profit.

Any answer which is reasonable will be accept.

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Q: A monopolist will not always produce on the inelastic portion of its demand curve?
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