No. Each pint is 16 fluid ounces. Two of them make 32 fluid ounces (one quart).
Yes, that is correct
Yes 80 oz is the same as 5 pints
-- If they're ounces of weight, they don't convert to pints of volume.-- Divide the number of fluid ounces by 16 to get the same volume in pints.
They are the same
5 pints is more, as 78 fl oz. is about 4.875 pints.
There are 16 ounces in a pint. Doing the math tells you that the two are the same.
same thing 1 pint = 16 ounces 1 ounce = 0.06 pint
how many tablespoons in three pints the answer is 4 fluid ounces so that means that if table spoons and teaspoons are the same then they are equal to 4 pints
32 quarts = -- 8 gallons -- 64 pints -- 128 cups -- 1,024 fluid ounces
1/2 cup equals 0.25 pint. In US measure, 1 pint = 2 cups And 1 cup = 0.5 pint. There are 16 US fluid ounces, 2 cups in 1 US pint (473.2 ml). Although there are 20 Imperial fluid ounces in 1 Imperial pint (568.3 ml), the Imperial system does not have cups, so it is best to use half pints.
48 ounces is equal to 3 pints. There are 2 cups in one pint and 8 ounces in 1 cup. This means you have to multiply 8 and 2. You will get 16 ounces. Then multiply 16 ans 3. This equals to 48 which makes it equal to 3 pints.
No same as 4 cups. In US measure: 1 quart = 4 cups And 1 cup = 0.25 quart. There are 32 US fluid ounces (2 pints, or 4 cups) in 1 US quart (946.4 ml). There are 40 Imperial fluid ounces (2 pints) in 1 Imperial quart (1,136 ml). Note that there is no 'cup' in the Imperial system, it is best to use pints or half pints, and not 'cups'.