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What is the mechanical advantage of a machine without friction?
Wiki User
∙ 13y ago
Machinal advantage, also known as mechanical advantage, refers to the ratio of the force produced by a machine to the force applied to it. A machine can be useful even its machinal advantage is less than 1.
Wiki User
∙ 9y ago
Wiki User
∙ 13y agoWiki User
∙ 12y agoa bicycle. it is useful for tasks that dont require a large output force
Wiki User
∙ 13y agoYes because for certain objects if you use too much force something won't work. The mechanics know that so they make machines have mechanical advantage less than one.
Wiki User
∙ 13y agoYes, anything above zero for mechanical advantage is useful. If it's zero then there is no advantage.
Wiki User
∙ 12y agoyes it can if you are to short to do the thing it will do it for you
Wiki User
∙ 9y agoSure. They can even have negative mechanical advantage (e.g., Class 3 levers).
Wiki User
∙ 10y agono
Wiki User
∙ 12y agoyes
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Is the ideal mechanical advantage of the ramp is it's mechanical advantage with friction?
No, the ideal is without friction.
The mechanical advantage of a machine without friciton is called the machine's mechanical advantage?
Kachina al
How do you calculate the ideal mechanical advantage of a lever?
It's 1. IMA = Distance in / Distance out. A single pulley doesn't do anything toward mechanical advantage, it changes the direction of the force. Not always. A single-axeled pulley (the typical pulley) has an IMA of 1, having one axel. If there was a second axel, then the IMA would = 2, so on and so forth. The easy way to do it is IMA = # of axels.
Why does a fixed pulley have a mechanical advantage of one and a movable pulley has a mechanical advantage of two?
we find mechanical advantage of pulley by using principle of lever. according to this moment of effort is equal to moment of moment of load. As in this case effort arm is equal to load arm. so mechanical advantage is equal to one. but we know we can never finish friction between rope used and pulley so mechanical advantage is less than one
Is mechanical advantage measured in N?
No, it is a ratio - without units.
What is the formula to find mechanical advantage?
The mechanical advantage that a machine would have without friction or in another term is that you can find the IDEAL MECHANICAL ADVANTAGE (IMA) OF A MACHINE IS BY HAVING A MACHINE WITH NO FRICTION, ALSO BY MULTIPLYING YOUR EFFORT FORCE BY 2, HOWEVER BECAUSE OF FRICTION AND THE WEIGHT THE ACTUAL MA WILL BE LESS.
Is the ideal mechanical advantage of the ramp is it's mechanical advantage with friction?
No, the ideal is without friction.
What is the difference between actual machanical advantage and ideal machanical advantage?
Ideal mechanical advantage is what could be obtained without the effects of gravity and friction lowering the efficiency of the machine. The actual mechanical advantage is what can actually be obtained by the machine.
The mechanical advantage of a machine without friciton is called the machine's mechanical advantage?
Kachina al
If there was no friction what would that do to mechanical advantage and how would it affect efficiency?
Without friction, some forms of mechanical advantage do not function. In most cases for a mechanical apparatus, a reduction in friction is usually accompanied by an increase in efficiency.
The mechanical advantage of a machine is the number of times it?
The mechanical advantage of a machine is the number of times it can perform the same task without breaking down.
What efficiency is assumed when calculating the ideal mechanical advantage?
The assumed efficiency is 100% without any friction
How do you calculate the ideal mechanical advantage of a lever?
It's 1. IMA = Distance in / Distance out. A single pulley doesn't do anything toward mechanical advantage, it changes the direction of the force. Not always. A single-axeled pulley (the typical pulley) has an IMA of 1, having one axel. If there was a second axel, then the IMA would = 2, so on and so forth. The easy way to do it is IMA = # of axels.
Does an ideal machine have friction?
Machine without any friction is an ideal machine so an ideal machine cannot have friction.
Why does a fixed pulley have a mechanical advantage of one and a movable pulley has a mechanical advantage of two?
we find mechanical advantage of pulley by using principle of lever. according to this moment of effort is equal to moment of moment of load. As in this case effort arm is equal to load arm. so mechanical advantage is equal to one. but we know we can never finish friction between rope used and pulley so mechanical advantage is less than one
What is the IMA of the inclined plane?
The ideal mechanical advantage, or IMA, of an inclined plane is equal to the length of the incline divided by its height. The IMA is calculated without regard to friction.
What is actual mechanical advantage in physics?
The ratio of the force required to do work without the machine (load force, FL) over the force required to do work when using a machine (effort force, FE).
