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Yes. From Newton's Second Law, you know that to accelerate an object, a net force must be applied to it. The impulse-momentum relationship is basically the same thing, but worded differently. It says that if you wish to change the momentum of an object, you need to exert an impulse on it.

From: Conceptual Physics, by Paul Hewitt. 11th Edition, Ch. 6 pg. 89.

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13y ago
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12y ago

if you apply a force constantly to a mass, it will accelerate indefinitely a=f/m (second law).

if you apply a force for a limited time to a mass , this is called an impulse,

f=m*a, but a = velocity change /time

so f = m * velocity change/t

so f*t/m = velocity change (during impulse)

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13y ago

Newton's second law means that the rate of change of momentum is equal to the resultant force and takes place in the same direction.

Change in momentum= mv - mu

Rate of change in momentum= (mv - mu) / t

Which may be written as m(v-u/t)

Which may be written as ma.

So F=(mv - mu)/t.

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12y ago

Yes, since f = m * a, and a = velocity change / time, you can shuffle this equation to :

>

velocity change = ((impulse) time * force) / mass

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Q: Is the impulse-momentum relationship related to newton's second law?
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