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How can I get my Actual Mechanical Advantage (AMA) to be closer to my Ideal Mechanical Advantage (IMA)?
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How does actual mechanical advantage compare with ideal mechanical advantage?
The actual mechanical advantage is usually less, due to losses.
How does the ideal compare with the actual mechanical advantage?
The actual mechanical advantage is usually less, due to losses.
What is IMA and AMA?
IMA- Ideal mechanical advantageAMA- Actual mechanical advantage
What is the difference between actual machanical advantage and ideal machanical advantage?
Ideal mechanical advantage is what could be obtained without the effects of gravity and friction lowering the efficiency of the machine. The actual mechanical advantage is what can actually be obtained by the machine.
What formula do you use to calculate the ideal mechanical advantage of a wheel and axle?
Actual Mechanical Advantage is the ratio of Force outputed to Force inputed. (AMA=Fo/Fi) Similarly, IMA (Ideal Mechanical Advantage) = di/do
Why is the actual mechanical advantage of an inclined plane alwaysess than the theoretical mechanical advantage?
This is because the actual mechanical advantage is the actual calculation found after dividing the effort force by the output force. Ideal mechanical advantage is what many people would call an estimate. When estimating mechanical advantage, the numbers are always rounded. This makes actual mechanical advantage less. Sources: Science teacher
What is the Mechanical Advantage Formula?
Mechanical Advantage: F(out)/ F(in) Actual Mechanical Advantage is the ratio of Force outputed to Force inputed. (AMA=Fo/Fi) Similarly, IMA (Ideal Mechanical Advantage) = di/do
What does IMA stands for in physics?
ideal mechanical advantage
What is the formula for mechanics?
Mechanical Advantage: F(out)/ F(in) Actual Mechanical Advantage is the ratio of Force outputed to Force inputed. (AMA=Fo/Fi) Similarly, IMA (Ideal Mechanical Advantage) = di/do
Is the ideal mechanical advantage of the ramp is it's mechanical advantage with friction?
No, the ideal is without friction.
If a machine was 100 percent efficient how would the AMA compare to the IMA?
At perfect 100% efficiency, the Actual Mechanical Advantage should equal the Ideal Mechanical Advantage.
Why do you multiply to find the total mechanical advantage?
The "Ideal Mechanical Advantage" of a simple machine isIMA = output force /input force . To find the 'actual' or real-world mechanical advantage,multiply the IMA by the machine's efficiency.
