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Why are recessive disorders more common than dominant disorders?
dominant traits show up in the first generation so any disorders have a 50% percent chance of showing up in offspring. recessive traits skip a generation therefore any diseases would have on a 25% chance.
If the allele for having a white forelock is dominant family members WITHOUT a white forelock are?
Family members without a white forelock must possess two recessive alleles for that trait, as the white forelock is dominant. This means they can only pass on the recessive allele to their offspring, ensuring that none of their children will have a white forelock unless the other parent contributes a dominant allele. In genetic terms, these family members are homozygous recessive for the trait.
What crosses will result in dominant phenotype offspring?
Don't give us the options then!! If one parent had 2 dominant genes then all offspring would have dominant phenotype, the same goes for both parents having dominant genes.
What can a punnett square tell us?
Punnett squares demonstrate the percentage of traits that are passed on from one generation to the next. It shows the pairings of dominant and recessive genes and what percentage there is of the next generation having those particular traits.
Which would have most likely stopped Mendel from finding a pattern in his results A. If seed shape did not have a clearly recessive form B. If having a wrinkled seed had been a recessive trait C. If g?
A. If seed shape did not have a clearly recessive form, Mendel might have struggled to discern a pattern in his results. The existence of distinct dominant and recessive traits allowed him to observe consistent ratios in offspring, which were crucial for formulating his laws of inheritance. Without clear recessive traits, the patterns he identified in his experiments would likely have been obscured, hindering his ability to develop his foundational principles of genetics.
According to Mendel what kind of genes disappear in F1 pea plants?
No genes disappear in the F1 generation. Each of the F1 plants was heterozygous, having both dominant and recessive alleles. The recessive phenotype disappears in the F1 generation because all members of that generation carry a dominant allele. In the F2 generation, the recessive phenotype will reappear.
An individual heterozygous for a trait and an individual homozygous recessive for the trait are crossed and produce many offspring?
The offspring has a 50% chance of the dominate trait (while being heteroygous) and a 50% chance of having the recessive trait ( homozygous recessive).
Why are recessive disorders more common than dominant disorders?
dominant traits show up in the first generation so any disorders have a 50% percent chance of showing up in offspring. recessive traits skip a generation therefore any diseases would have on a 25% chance.
If one parent has two dominant alleles and another parent has two recessive alleles the offspring will have?
One copy of each allele, resulting in the offspring having one dominant allele and one recessive allele. This combination is known as heterozygous.
According to mendel what genes disappear in f1 pea plants?
No genes disappear in the F1 generation. Each of the F1 plants was heterozygous, having both a dominant and recessive alleles. The recessive phenotype disappears in the F1 generation because all members of that generation carry a dominant allele. In the F2 generation, the recessive phenotype will reappear.
Does hemochromatosis skip generation?
Short answer: yes Hereditary haemachromatosis is autosomal recessive, meaning you have to have 2 copies of the faulty gene to have the condition. Therefor, someone with hereditary haemachromatosis would have to have children either with someone who is a carrier (1 copy of the gene) or someone with haemachromatosis to have offspring with the condition. It can 'skip' generations by 2 carriers (1 copy of the gene) having children and having an affected offspring, but the chance of that happening is 1/4.
When can a recessive gene assert itself?
When a parent for example has one dominant and onee recessive e.g Fe and another parent is a carrier for it e.g ee this will make the gene produce a trait of the offspring having a 50% chance of being a carrier
How is Sandoff disease passed on in families?
an autosomal recessive disorder, meaning that having an affected offspring requires both unaffected parents to be carriers. Parents who carry the disorder will have a 25% risk of having an affected offspring in subsequent pregnancies.
Why do animals of the same species continue to live from generation to another?
having offspring. i.e reproduction.
Why did one of the characteristics for example dwarfness or white flower color disappear in the F1 generation of Mendal's crosses?
Since the F1 generation of crosses is a cross between two pure traits (for example, TT for tall and tt for short/dwarfness), the offspring of the pure parents all have the genotype of Tt: 100% of offspring will be tall. The dwarfness seems to "disappear" because the capital T is dominant, while the lowercase t (for shortness) is recessive. Dominant dominates a recessive trait, so only tallness appears and dwarfness seems to disappear. Additional Info: However, even though the dwarfness seems to "disappear" it is still in the genotype although it does not appear in the F1 generation. In the F2 generation, there will be a 25% chance of the offspring having the trait dwarfness, because the F1 generation is crossed (Tt x Tt).
What does Mendel's hypothesis of inheritance state?
i dont know all about it but he says that the mother and the father both pass genes to their offspring even though they may not show for example their fathers blue eyes but they show their mothers green eyes. the blue eyes is a recessive gene they will pass to their offspring. so it may skipa generation and come back because the offspring carry that gene. no gene is lost until it has passed 2 generations without a mother or father having it of the offspring have it.
If the allele for having a white forelock is dominant family members WITHOUT a white forelock are?
Family members without a white forelock must possess two recessive alleles for that trait, as the white forelock is dominant. This means they can only pass on the recessive allele to their offspring, ensuring that none of their children will have a white forelock unless the other parent contributes a dominant allele. In genetic terms, these family members are homozygous recessive for the trait.
